This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try
refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and,
finally, (c)
loading the
non-javascript version of this page
. We're sorry about the hassle.
1 0 1 3 ! 1 0 0 7 × 1 0 0 8 × 1 0 0 9 × ⋯ × 2 0 1 9 = ( 1 × 2 × ⋯ × 1 0 0 6 ) ( 1 × 2 × ⋯ × 1 0 1 3 ) ( 1 × 2 × ⋯ × 1 0 0 6 ) ( 1 0 0 7 × 1 0 0 8 × ⋯ × 2 0 1 9 ) = ( 1 0 0 6 ! ) ( 1 0 1 3 ! ) 2 0 1 9 ! 1 0 1 0 ! 1 0 0 7 × 1 0 0 8 × 1 0 0 9 × ⋯ × 2 0 1 9 = ( 1 × 2 × ⋯ × 1 0 0 6 ) ( 1 × 2 × ⋯ × 1 0 1 3 ) ( 1 × 2 × ⋯ × 1 0 0 6 ) ( 1 0 0 7 × 1 0 0 8 × ⋯ × 2 0 1 9 ) × ( 1 0 1 3 × 1 0 1 2 × 1 0 1 1 ) = ( 1 0 0 6 ! ) ( 1 0 1 3 ! ) 2 0 1 9 ! × ( 1 0 1 3 × 1 0 1 2 × 1 0 1 1 )
it means that: ( 1 0 0 7 × 1 0 0 8 × 1 0 0 9 × 1 0 1 0 × ⋯ × 2 0 1 9 ) m o d 1 0 1 0 ! ≡ ( 2 0 1 9 ! × ( 1 0 1 3 × 1 0 1 2 × 1 0 1 1 ) ) m o d ( 1 0 0 6 ! × 1 0 1 3 ! ) ≡ [ ( ( 2 0 1 9 ! ) m o d ( 1 0 0 6 ! × 1 0 1 3 ! ) ) × ( ( 1 0 1 3 × 1 0 1 2 × 1 0 1 1 ) m o d ( 1 0 0 6 ! × 1 0 1 3 ! ) ) ] m o d ( 1 0 0 6 ! × 1 0 1 3 ! ) ≡ ( 0 × 1 ) m o d ( 1 0 0 6 ! × 1 0 1 3 ! ) = 0
It seems that in the question you wanted to ask ( m o d 1 0 1 3 ! ) and wrote it by mistake .Am I right??
You must fix that up if such is a case.
Log in to reply
nope, i just try to use the fact that the expression mod 1013! is 0.
The product of r consecutive integers is divisible by r ! .
1010 consecutive numbers 1 0 1 0 × 1 0 1 1 × 1 0 1 2 × ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ × 2 0 1 9 is divisible by 1 0 1 0 ! .
∴ Our answer is 0
N O T E
The terms 1 0 0 7 × 1 0 0 8 × 1 0 0 9 were extraneous.
So , we can even prove the number above to be divisible by 1 0 1 3 ! .
1013 consecutive numbers 1 0 0 7 × 1 0 0 8 × 1 0 0 9 × 1 0 1 0 × ⋯ × 2 0 1 9 is divisible by 1 0 1 3 !
See sir @Brian Moehring 's solution for much clear solution. :)
The problem above was just like ab mod c where b mod c = 0. :)
Log in to reply
I too used that fact , I proved the it to be divisible by 1 0 1 3 ! and hence by 1 0 1 0 ! .
And @Brian Moehring has done it well , he proved the fact that I used. :)
Even the fact that I stated can be proved as follows : (I am not that sure of this)
Among any r consecutive numbers , we definitely have a multiple of r , a multiple of r − 1 , a multiple of r − 2 ⋯ a multiple of 2 and hence it is divisible by r !
Problem Loading...
Note Loading...
Set Loading...
Note that 1 0 1 0 ! 1 0 0 7 × 1 0 0 8 × 1 0 0 9 × 1 0 1 0 × ⋯ × 2 0 1 9 = 1 0 0 7 × 1 0 0 8 × 1 0 0 9 × 1 0 1 0 ! 1 0 1 0 × 1 0 1 1 × ⋯ × 2 0 1 9 = 1 0 0 7 × 1 0 0 8 × 1 0 0 9 × 1 0 1 0 ! × 1 0 0 9 ! 2 0 1 9 ! = 1 0 0 7 × 1 0 0 8 × 1 0 0 9 × ( 1 0 1 0 2 0 1 9 ) ∈ N so that 1 0 1 0 ! evenly divides the product and 1 0 0 7 × 1 0 0 8 × 1 0 0 9 × 1 0 1 0 × ⋯ × 2 0 1 9 ≡ 0 ( m o d 1 0 1 0 ! ) .