Consider the following polynomial: f ( x ) = 1 + 1 ! x + 2 ! x 2 + 3 ! x 3 + . . . . . . . . . . + n ! x n
Here n is a finite integer.
Now which of the following statement is true ??
This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try
refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and,
finally, (c)
loading the
non-javascript version of this page
. We're sorry about the hassle.
Am I missing something here? How did you get the second equation?
Log in to reply
Differentiating wrt to x the function f ( x ) ....
If you're still confused feel free to ask...
Log in to reply
Ah, I accidentally read f ′ ( a ) as f ( a ′ ) , where a , a ′ were the two duplicate roots. No idea why I interpreted it that way. It makes sense now. :)
Great solution Eddie! Very concise and succinct!
Problem Loading...
Note Loading...
Set Loading...
First let us consider f ( x ) has a repeated root say at x = a . Since it is a repeated root we must have f ( a ) = 0 and f ′ ( a ) = 0 .
If f ( a ) = 0 ,we must have 1 + 1 ! a + 2 ! a 2 + 3 ! a 3 + . . . . . n ! a n = 0 --- (1)
If f ′ ( a ) = 0 ,we must have 1 + 1 ! a + 2 ! a 2 + 3 ! a 3 + . . . . . ( n − 1 ) ! a n − 1 = 0 ---(2)
Subtracting these two equations we obtain n ! a n = 0 a = 0 .
Substituting a = 0 in any of the above two equations we obtain 1 = 0 ...an obvious contradiction.
Hence f ( x ) can never have a repeated root.