For integers, n and k , related as 0 ≤ k ≤ n ; n ∈ N , a sequence is defined as follows:
I n ( k ) = 0 ∫ 1 x k ( 1 − x ) n − k d x
Evaluate: ∑ k = 0 2 0 1 4 I 2 0 1 4 ( k ) ∑ k = 0 2 0 1 4 k I 2 0 1 4 ( k )
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this one is truly good and much better than using complex methods
yes a jee kind question
Looking at the exponents in the integral, it hints us to consider a binomial expansion. So let J = 0 ∫ 1 ( t x + 1 − x ) n d x , where t is a parameter. Let us evaluate J by two different methods.
Firstly, J = 0 ∫ 1 ( ( t − 1 ) x + 1 ) n d x = ( n + 1 ) ( t − 1 ) ( ( t − 1 ) x + 1 ) n + 1 ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ 0 1 = ( n + 1 ) ( t − 1 ) t n + 1 − 1 = n + 1 1 { ∑ k = 0 n t k }
Now, we will approach in a different manner so as to create the required expression. J = 0 ∫ 1 ( t x + 1 − x ) n d x = ∑ k = 0 n ( k n ) 0 ∫ 1 ( t x ) k ( 1 − x ) n − k d x = ∑ k = 0 n ( k n ) t k 0 ∫ 1 ( x ) k ( 1 − x ) n − k d x = ∑ k = 0 n ( k n ) t k I n ( k )
Now, we can equate the final expression obtained in both the cases as they are ultimately J . Therefore,
n + 1 1 { k = 0 ∑ n t k } = k = 0 ∑ n ( k n ) t k I n ( k )
Equating the coefficients of t k on both the sides, we obtain,
I n ( k ) = ( n + 1 ) ( k n ) 1
As we have obtained an expression for I n ( k ) , we can go and evaluate the sums.
Using the property that,
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Thus,
2
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k
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k
n
+
1
2
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k
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(
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n
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Therefore,
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1
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7
The way you evaluated the integral was just awesome!! ⌣ ¨
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Thanks.I found your approach interesting as well. Nice use of Walli's formula. It is always good to see different approaches towards a problem.
First let us consider the integral:
∫ 0 1 x p ( 1 − x ) q d x
Let us make the substitution x = sin 2 θ
∴ d x = 2 sin θ cos θ d θ
Thus our integral becomes:
2 ∫ 0 π / 2 sin 2 p + 1 θ cos 2 q + 1 θ d θ
By Walli's formula we can show that the value of this integral is:
2 ( ( 2 p + 2 q + 2 ) ( 2 p + 2 q ) ( 2 p + 2 q − 2 ) . . . ) ( ( 2 p ) ( 2 p − 2 ) ( 2 p − 4 ) . . . ) ( ( 2 q ) ( 2 q − 2 ) ( 2 q − 4 ) . . . )
= ( p + q + 1 ) ! ( p ) ! ( q ) !
Now just substitute p = k and q = n − k to obtain:
I n ( k ) = ( n + 1 ) ! ( k ) ! ( n − k ) ! = ( n + 1 ) ( k n ) 1
Now let us consider the sum:
k = 0 ∑ n k I n ( k ) = S ( n ) (say)
S ( n ) = k = 0 ∑ n ( n + 1 ) ( k n ) k
Replacing k by n − k :
S ( n ) = k = 0 ∑ n ( n + 1 ) ( k n ) n − k
Adding the two equations above and dividing both sides by 2 we get:
S ( n ) = 2 n k = 0 ∑ n ( n + 1 ) ( k n ) 1
Thus the required answer is:
k = 0 ∑ 2 0 1 4 ( 2 0 1 5 ) ( k 2 0 1 4 ) 1 S ( 2 0 1 4 ) = 2 2 0 1 4 = 1 0 0 7
thats a good one
Beta Function!
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A much simpler and short method to solve this is considering that
∫ 0 1 x k ( 1 − x ) n − k d x = ∫ 0 1 x n − k ( 1 − x ) k d x
Therefore, Denominator :-
2 ∑ k = 0 1 0 0 7 ∫ 0 1 x k ( 1 − x ) n − k
and Numerator :-
2 0 1 4 ∑ k = 0 1 0 0 7 ∫ 0 1 x k ( 1 − x ) n − k
Hence Numerator / Denominator = 1007
P.S. This question is from JEE