Return of the Particle Race

The old rivals, particles P P and Q Q are back, yet again for another thrilling race. This time the arena is a friction-less circular track with radius R R and diameter A B AB .The race begins from A A and ends at B B .

Motion of particle P \text{ Motion of particle P} : It is released from point A A at an angle θ \theta with the horizontal , with a velocity of v 0 v_{0} , such that it lands exactly at point B B .

Motion of particle Q \text{ Motion of particle Q} : It starts from A A and moves around the circumference, such that at every instant the tangential \text{tangential} and radial \text{radial} accelerations are equal in magnitude. The velocity of Q Q at t = 0 t=0 is also v 0 v_{0} .

Find the difference in time taken for particles P P and Q Q (consider equal mass and dimensions), to reach point B B

Details and Assumptions :

\bullet R = 16 m R=16m , v 0 = 20 m s 1 v_{0}=20ms^{-1} , g = 10 m s 2 g=10ms^{-2}

\bullet Neglect air-resistance

\bullet If you think Q Q wins , add 5.31 5.31 to your difference, otherwise add 10.73 10.73 .

\bullet Definitely try the first part

This question is part of the set Best of Me


The answer is 6.329.

This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and, finally, (c) loading the non-javascript version of this page . We're sorry about the hassle.

1 solution

Satvik Pandey
Apr 18, 2015

First I started with Q, according to given condition

R d ω d t = v 2 R R\frac { d\omega }{ dt } =\frac { { v }^{ 2 } }{ R } (Let the velocity of particle at any arbitrary point be v v )

So

d ω d t = ω 2 \frac { d\omega }{ dt } ={ \omega }^{ 2 }

On integrating we get

1 ω = t + C -\frac { 1 }{ \omega } =t+C

At t = 0 t=0 ω = v 0 R \omega=\frac{v_{0}}{R}

So C = R v 0 C=-\frac{R}{v_{0}}

So the equation becomes

1 ω = t R v 0 -\frac { 1 }{ \omega } =t-\frac{R}{v_{0}}

So on substituting ω = d θ d t \omega=\frac{d\theta}{dt} we get

0 T d t R v 0 t = 0 π d θ \int _{ 0 }^{ T }{ \frac { dt }{ \frac { R }{ { v }_{ 0 } } -t } } =\int _{ 0 }^{ \pi }{ d\theta }

So, ln ( R v t ) = π \ln { \left( \frac { R }{ v } -t \right) } =-\pi

or ( R v t ) = e π \left( \frac { R }{ v } -t \right) { =e }^{ -\pi }

On putting values I got t = 0.756 t=0.756

Now for Particle P

It follows a projectile motion with range = 2 R 2R

v 2 s i n ( 2 θ ) g = 2 R \frac { { v }^{ 2 }sin(2\theta ) }{ g } =2R .........(1)

And Time of flight of projectile

T 0 = 2 v s i n ( θ ) g T_{0}=\frac { 2vsin(\theta ) }{ g }

On putting value and using eq(1)

I got T 0 = 1.76 T_{0}=1.76

So it is clear that particle Q won the race so the answer is 1.76 0.75 + 5.31 = 6.32 1.76-0.75+5.31=6.32 .

Well done!:) But, don't you think your second integral should have limits from 0 0 to π \pi ?

Samarpit Swain - 6 years, 1 month ago

Log in to reply

Yes it should be π \pi . Made a blunder mistake. :((

satvik pandey - 6 years, 1 month ago

I am going to edit it. Thanks for notifying it to me! :)

satvik pandey - 6 years, 1 month ago

I checked my calculations after setting the limits to π \pi and I got answer correct up to two place of decimal.

I got T p = R V e π = 0.756 T_{p}=\frac{R}{V}-e^{-\pi}=0.756

I guess I am correct this time. :p Am I? :D

satvik pandey - 6 years, 1 month ago

0 pending reports

×

Problem Loading...

Note Loading...

Set Loading...