Riemann meets Liouville

S = n = 1 ( 1 ) Ω ( n ) n 4 S=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^{\Omega(n)}}{n^4}

Let Ω ( n ) \Omega(n) denote the number of prime factors of n n , counted with their multiplicities. For example, Ω ( 2016 ) = Ω ( 2 5 × 3 2 × 7 ) = 5 + 2 + 1 = 8 \Omega(2016)=\Omega(2^5\times 3^2\times 7)=5+2+1=8 .

Submit π 4 S \dfrac{\pi^4}{S} as your answer.


The answer is 105.

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1 solution

Isaac Buckley
Jan 4, 2016

Ω ( n ) \Omega(n) is a (completely) additive function which implies ( 1 ) Ω ( n ) (-1)^{\Omega(n)} is a (completely) multiplicative function.

( 1 ) Ω ( n ) (-1)^{\Omega(n)} is more commonly denoted λ ( n ) \lambda(n) and is called the Liouville function .

Since it's multiplicative we can write:

S = n = 1 λ ( n ) n 4 = p k = 0 λ ( p k ) p 4 k \large S=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{\lambda(n)}{n^4}=\prod_{p} \sum\limits_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{\lambda(p^k)}{p^{4k}}

Since λ ( p k ) = ( 1 ) k \lambda(p^k)=(-1)^k it becomes a geometric sum:

S = p k = 0 ( 1 ) k p 4 k = p 1 1 + 1 p 4 = p 1 1 p 4 1 1 p 8 = ζ ( 8 ) ζ ( 4 ) = π 8 9450 π 4 90 = π 4 105 \Large S=\prod_{p} \sum\limits_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{k}}{p^{4k}}=\prod_{p} \frac{1}{1+\frac{1}{p^4}}=\prod_{p} \frac{1-\frac{1}{p^4}}{1-\frac{1}{p^8}}=\frac{\zeta(8)}{\zeta(4)}=\frac{\frac{\pi^8}{9450}}{\frac{\pi^4}{90}}=\frac{\pi^4}{105}

Yes, another crystal clear solution, clearer than many text books! (+1)

It helps that the Liouville function is completely multiplicative: For any completely multiplicative function f ( n ) f(n) the Euler product simplifies to n = 1 f ( n ) n s = p 1 1 f ( p ) p s \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{f(n)}{n^s}=\prod_{p}\frac{1}{1-f(p)p^{-s}}

Otto Bretscher - 5 years, 5 months ago

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Nice identity indeed!

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 5 months ago

Alternatively, note that λ ( n ) = ( 1 ) Ω ( n ) \lambda(n) = (-1)^{\Omega(n)} is the Liouville function, and n = 1 λ ( n ) n s = ζ ( 2 s ) ζ ( s ) \displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{\lambda(n)}{n^s} = \frac{\zeta(2s)}{\zeta(s)} which follows directly from λ 1 = 1 { 1 , 4 , 9 , 16 , } \lambda * 1 = \mathbf{1}_{\{ 1,4,9,16,\ldots \}} .

Jake Lai - 5 years, 5 months ago

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Yes, this is a very elegant solution also! (+1)

Otto Bretscher - 5 years, 5 months ago

nice solution(+1). i knew this but always used dirtchlet series and never knew of this cool method!

Aareyan Manzoor - 5 years, 5 months ago

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