Let f ( x ) be a continuous and differentiable function on [ 0 , 1 0 ] such that f ( 0 ) = 0 and f ( 1 0 ) = 0 . We can conclude that there exists c ∈ ( 0 , 1 0 ) such that:
c f ′ ( c ) + f ( c ) = k
What is the value of k ?
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Nice solution, Joseph, thanks!
Nice solution! Just one question - does the fact k = 0 is the only value which must be attained follow directly from being able to choose g ( x ) > 0 or g ( x ) < 0 ? We're interested in the derivative of g ( x ) which (as you've explained) takes positive and negative values for any g .
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That's correct, my mistake! I've edited the solution to have a better counterexample, although it's not as elegant.
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Well, not as elegant, but it's a solid counterexample. I can't think of an essentially different way to prove uniqueness.
Nice counter-example! You can choose a = 2 0 k to get around the extra parameter a :
∣ g ′ ( x ) ∣ = 2 0 ∣ k ∣ ⋅ ∣ 2 x − 1 0 ∣ ≤ 2 0 ∣ k ∣ ⋅ 1 0 < ∣ k ∣
P.S.: Shouldn't it be g ′ ( x ) = a ( 2 x − 1 0 ) ? Not that it matters, as you take the absolute value in the next step, anyway.
Let f ( 0 ) = N for any nonzero N . By the Mean-Value Theorem, there exists a point c ∈ ( 0 , 1 0 ) such that slope of the tangent line drawn to f ( x ) at x = c equals the slope of the secant line connecting the endpoints ( x , y ) = ( 0 , N ) and ( 1 0 , 0 ) . That is f ′ ( c ) = 0 − 1 0 N − 0 = − 1 0 N . Subsituting this value into the given differential equation yields:
c ( − 1 0 N ) + f ( c ) = k ⇒ f ( c ) = k + 1 0 N c
Knowing that 0 < f ( c ) < N , we obtain:
0 < k + 1 0 N c < N ⇒ − N 1 0 k < c < ( N − k ) ( N 1 0 )
and if c ∈ ( 0 , 1 0 ) , then we require k = 0 .
mention[854543:tom engelsman]
Indeed you're a true math meanie! (Did YOU figure it out?)
I just used y = − x + 1 0 . I'm a physicist and not a pure mathematician.
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Let g ( x ) = x f ( x ) , so that by the product rule g ′ ( x ) = x f ′ ( x ) + f ( x ) . We have g ( 0 ) g ( 1 0 ) = 0 × f ( 0 ) = 0 = 1 0 × 0 = 0 Hence, by Rolle's theorem , there is some stationary point between 0 and 10, i.e. g ′ ( c ) = 0 for some c ∈ ( 0 , 1 0 ) . Hence, c f ′ ( c ) + f ( c ) = 0 and so k = 0 .
Notice that this is the only guaranteed value of k : if we take k = 0 then a counterexample is f ( x ) = a ( x − 1 0 ) for some a , since g ′ ( x ) = a ( 2 x − 1 0 ) and we can choose a small enough so that ∣ g ′ ( x ) ∣ < ∣ k ∣ on ( 0 , 1 0 ) .