SAT1000 - P893

Algebra Level 4

If sequence { a n } \{a_n\} satisfies the property: n N + \forall n \in \mathbb N^+ , there exists finite number of positive integers m m such that a m < n a_m<n . Then for any given n n , if we count the corresponding number of solutions for m m , and take note of the value at the same indices, then we will generate a new sequence { ( a n ) } \{(a_n)^*\} .

For example, if { a n } \{a_n\} is 1 , 2 , 3 , , n 1,2,3,\cdots,n , then { ( a n ) } \{(a_n)^*\} will be: 0 , 1 , 2 , , n 1 0,1,2,\cdots,n-1 .

Given that n N + \forall n \in \mathbb N^+ , a n = n 2 a_n=n^2 . If we define sequence { b n } \{b_n\} as { ( ( a n ) ) } \{((a_{n})^*)^*\} , find b 2020 b_{2020} .


Have a look at my problem set: SAT 1000 problems


The answer is 4080400.

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2 solutions

We are given that a n = n 2 a_n = n^2 .

Let c n = { ( a n ) } c_n = \{(a_n)^{*}\} be a sequence. Then,

c n = c_n = No. of m m 's such that a m < n a_m < n .

So solving for given n n ,

a m < n m 2 < n m < n 1 m n 1 \displaystyle \quad a_m < n\newline \Rightarrow m^2 < n\newline \Rightarrow m < \sqrt{n}\newline \Rightarrow 1 \leq m \leq \lceil \sqrt{n}\rceil - 1 where . \lceil . \rceil is ceiling function.

So, no. of m m 's for given n n is n 1 \displaystyle \lceil \sqrt{n}\rceil - 1

Hence we get,

c n = n 1 \displaystyle c_n = \lceil \sqrt{n}\rceil - 1

Now we are given that b n = { ( ( a n ) ) } \displaystyle b_n = \{((a_n)^{*})^{*}\} . So b n = { ( c n ) } b_n = \{(c_n)^{*}\} .

Solving similarly for no. of m m 's such that c m < n c_m < n for given n,

c m < n m 1 < n m < n + 1 m n m n 1 m n 2 \displaystyle \quad c_m < n\newline \Rightarrow \lceil \sqrt{m}\rceil - 1 < n\newline \Rightarrow \lceil \sqrt{m}\rceil < n + 1\newline \Rightarrow \lceil \sqrt{m}\rceil \leq n \newline \Rightarrow \sqrt{m} \leq n \newline \Rightarrow 1 \leq m \leq n^2 .

So, no. of m m 's for given n n is n 2 \displaystyle n^2

Hence we get,

b n = n 2 \displaystyle b_n = n^2

So, b 2020 = 202 0 2 = 4080400 \displaystyle b_{2020} = 2020^2 = \boxed{4080400}

Nick Kent
Jun 27, 2020

It's pretty obvious that { ( a n ) } \{(a_n)^*\} is a monotonous sequence because if a m < n a_m < n then a m < n + 1 a_m < n+1 . Moreover, { ( a n ) } \{(a_n)^*\} rises either by 1 or 0 since { a n = n 2 } \{a_n = n^2\} is strictly monotonous. That means that b n b_n is one less than the index of the first ( a n ) 2020 (a_n)^* \geq 2020 . So we need a number that is bigger than the first 2020 a n a_n which is obviously is 202 0 2 + 1 2020^2+1 . Then b n = 202 0 2 = 4080400 b_n = 2020^2 = \boxed{4080400}

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