Let n be a positive integer , find the value of ∫ 0 π sin 2 x sin 2 n x d x .
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Is there any non induction solution?
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You can use the representation for sin ( n x ) in terms of sin x , cos x and then work with ∫ sin a x sin b x d x (which is 0 except when a = b ).
The induction approach is slightly more natural (because of that cancellation), though both essentially result in the "same" equation.
Wohoo! We both did almost the same! Ahaha!
In the trigonometric identities used the dirichlet's kernel should be cos(2kx).
I know it's cheating, but just let n = 1 and you are done :D
:P. I know it. It's just for proof. Beauty of mathematical induction. :)
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Of course! I would never consider my "solution" a solution. This is a mathematically rich and beautiful problem!
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Claim : ∫ 0 π sin 2 x sin 2 n x d x = n π , where n is a positive integer .
Proof : Let I n = ∫ 0 π sin 2 x sin 2 n x d x , where n = 1 , 2 , 3 , … .
It is trivial to show that I 1 = π .
To prove that I n = n π is equivalent to proving that I n + 1 − I n = ( n + 1 ) π − n π = π . We have
I n + 1 − I n = = = = = = = ∫ 0 π sin 2 x sin 2 [ ( n + 1 ) x ] − sin 2 ( n x ) d x ∫ 0 π sin 2 x ( sin [ ( n + 1 ) x ] + sin [ n x ] ) ( sin [ ( n + 1 ) x ] − sin [ n x ] ) d x ∫ 0 π sin 2 x 2 sin [ 2 2 n + 1 x ] cos 2 x ⋅ 2 cos [ 2 2 n + 1 x ] sin 2 x d x ∫ 0 π sin 2 x sin [ ( 2 n + 1 ) x ] ⋅ sin x d x ∫ 0 π sin x sin [ ( 2 n + 1 ) x ] d x ∫ 0 π [ 1 + 2 k = 1 ∑ n cos ( 2 k x ) ] d x π + 2 [ k = 1 ∑ n 2 k 1 sin ( 2 k x ) ] 0 π 0 = π .
Since the finite difference between each consecutive I n 's is π , and we know that I 1 = π , then I n = n π . We're done!
In the steps above, we have used the trigonometric identities:
Sum-to-product identities : sin A + sin B = 2 sin ( 2 A + B ) cos ( 2 A − B ) and sin A − sin B = 2 cos ( 2 A + B ) sin ( 2 A − B ) .
Double angle identities : sin ( 2 A ) = 2 sin A cos A .
Dirichlet kernel, sin x sin [ ( 2 n + 1 ) x ] = 1 + 2 k = 1 ∑ n cos ( k x ) , which can be shown using straightforward telescoping sum of product-to-sum identities.