Seems Familiar

Calculus Level 1

lim n ( 1 x 2 n 2 ) n = ? \large \lim_{n\to\infty} \left(1 - \frac{x^2}{n^2} \right)^n = \ ?


The answer is 1.

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1 solution

Curtis Clement
May 9, 2015

lim n ( 1 x 2 n 2 ) n = lim n ( 1 + x n ) n × lim n ( 1 x n ) n = e x × e x = 1 \lim_{n \rightarrow\infty } (1- \frac{x^2}{n^2})^n = \lim_{n \rightarrow\infty } (1+\frac{x}{n})^n \times\lim_{n \rightarrow\infty } (1- \frac{x}{n})^n = e^x \times\ e^{-x} = \boxed{1}

This comes from the definition of e: e = lim n ( 1 + 1 n ) n e = \lim_{n \rightarrow\infty } (1+\frac{1}{n})^n which can be generalised to e x = lim n ( 1 + x n ) n . . . . . . . . x \ e^x = \lim_{n \rightarrow\infty } (1+\frac{x}{n})^n \ ........ x \in \Re via l'hopital's rule.

I'm not really into limits yet I was able to answer this question correctly(by mistake I suppose) but I wanted to know where I've gone wrong.

So IMO there's no need for all that explanation when n n \rightarrow \infty then the denominator in x 2 n 2 \frac {x^2}{n^2} tends to infinity which means the denominator is zero in the infinity.Hence the answer should be lim n ( 1 n ) \lim_{n \rightarrow\infty } (1^n) which is 1.By the way I don't really know much about the e e so if the wrong in my answer was anything somehow related to e e please explain it noob-friendly xD thanks for the problem.

Arian Tashakkor - 6 years, 1 month ago

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That would usually be the case, but the trouble is the exponent is getting larger at the same time, so we to look for convergence. There is a neat proof that lim n ( 1 + 1 n ) n \lim_{n \rightarrow\infty} (1+\frac{1}{n})^n monotonically converges to e \approx 2.718. If you are still not convinced just type in the expression for e as n gets larger.

Curtis Clement - 6 years, 1 month ago

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Thank you very much Curtis!I think I get it now.And also the reason for the name "Seems familiar ... " :D

Arian Tashakkor - 6 years, 1 month ago

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