I have posted several problems related to mutual inductance calculations for two loops. In these problems, everything is well-defined and well-behaved because the magnetic sources are separated from the target surfaces. When you try to calculate the self inductance for a single loop of infinitely thin wire, there are infinities in the integrand and the problem is not well-behaved. Of course, in the real world, all wire has finite non-zero thickness.
To eliminate the infinities, let us consider a wire loop with non-zero thickness and make a few simplifying assumptions. Suppose that the wire loop is a solid torus with inner radius and outer radius . The assumptions are as follows:
1) One unit of electric current passes through the center of the wire along the curve given below. The current path has zero cross-sectional area.
2) Calculate the resulting magnetic flux through the interior disk enclosed by the torus (given below).
Because the magnetic source (current loop) is separated from the target surface, this simplified problem is mathematically well-behaved. Let the approximate self inductance derived from the above calculations be .
I found a formula online for calculating the self inductance of a wire loop. Let this value be .
In this particular problem, , , and . In the equation, denotes the natural logarithm.
What is ?
Bonus : In light of the results, do the proposed simplifications seem reasonable? What geometric constraints might be necessary in order to guarantee good results?
Note: It is possible that the formula is based on the same simplifying assumptions proposed here. But I haven't yet looked into the details of the formula's derivation.
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Very thought provoking problem. I have not looked into the derivation of the formula yet, but I may share my thoughts on that in a following comment after I do read up a little.
To solve this problem, I used the concept of the magnetic vector potential, the definition of which can be found in this link .
A point on current carrying wire is:
r 1 = ( cos t 1 , sin t 1 , 0 )
Elementary arc vector in the vicinity of that point is:
d r 1 = ( − sin t 1 , cos t 1 , 0 ) d t 1
A point on the boundary of the interior disk is:
r 2 = ( 0 . 9 9 cos t 2 , 0 . 9 9 sin t 2 , 0 )
Elementary arc vector in the vicinity of that point is:
d r 2 = ( − 0 . 9 9 sin t 2 , 0 . 9 9 cos t 2 , 0 ) d t 2
The magnetic vector potential due to the elementary arc on the current carrying wire is:
d A = 4 π μ o ∣ r 2 − r 1 ∣ d r 1 A = 4 π μ o ∮ C 1 ∣ r 2 − r 1 ∣ d r 1
Now, the flux through the interior disk is (as per Stokes' theorem):
Φ = ∫ ∫ S B ⋅ d S = ∫ ∫ S ( ∇ × A ) ⋅ d S = ∮ C 2 A ⋅ d r 2 ⟹ Φ = ∮ C 2 A ⋅ d r 2 = ∮ C 2 ( 4 π μ o ∮ C 1 ∣ r 2 − r 1 ∣ d r 1 ) ⋅ d r 2 ⟹ Φ = L a = 4 π μ o ∮ C 2 ∮ C 1 ( ∣ r 2 − r 1 ∣ d r 1 ) ⋅ d r 2
Plugging in all expressions, simplifying and solving the integral by outsourcing to Wolfram Alpha is one way to go. I wrote a simple script of code to accomplish the task. Finally, the answer is:
L f L a ≈ 0 . 9 9 4 3
As for the geometric constraints, I think that the thickness of the wire has to be much smaller relative to its diameter as is the case here, for the formula to hold good. But I think I will know better when I read up about its derivation.