Separating line

Two points P , Q P,Q are chosen uniformly at random from the interior of the square A B C D ABCD . The line L 1 L_1 through P P and Q Q is drawn. The probability that the points A A and C C are on different sides of L 1 L_1 can be expressed as a b \frac{a}{b} where a a and b b are coprime positive integers. What is the value of a + b a + b ?


The answer is 11.

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6 solutions

Kai Chung Tam
May 20, 2014

*Solution. * Suppose P P is any point in the interior of the triangle A B C ABC . The criteria of point Q Q so that A A and C C are on the same side of P Q PQ is when the line P Q PQ does not intersect the segment A C AC . Connect and extend the line A P AP such that it intersects the side B C BC at point E E . Also, connect and extend the line C P CP such that it intersects the side A C AC at point F F . Then the set of point Q Q that satisfies the criteria is just the union of the two triangles C P E CPE and A P F APF . We denote by [ X Y Z ] [XYZ] the area of a triangle X Y Z XYZ .

We use a coordinate system so that A = ( 0 , 1 ) , B = ( 0 , 0 ) , C = ( 1 , 0 ) , D = ( 1 , 1 ) A=(0,1), B=(0,0), C=(1,0), D=(1,1) , and let P = ( x , y ) A B C P=(x,y) \in \triangle ABC .

Then, notice that

[ C P E ] [ A P C ] = P E A P = x 1 x , \frac{[CPE]}{[APC]}=\frac{PE}{AP}=\frac{x}{1-x}, [ A P F ] [ A P C ] = P F C P = y 1 y , \frac{[APF]}{[APC]}=\frac{PF}{CP}=\frac{y}{1-y}, [ A P C ] = 1 x y 2 [APC] = \frac{1-x-y}{2}

we have [ C P E ] + [ A P F ] = 1 2 ( 1 x y ) ( x 1 x + y 1 y ) = : f ( x , y ) . [CPE]+[APF] = \frac{1}{2}(1-x-y)(\frac{x}{1-x}+\frac{y}{1-y}) =:f(x,y).

Therefore the probability that P P is in triangle A B C ABC and A A , C C lie on the same side of P Q PQ is I : = ( x , y ) A B C f ( x , y ) d x d y . I:=\int\int_{(x,y)\in \triangle ABC} f(x,y)dxdy.

By symmetry, the probability that P P lies in the triangle A D C ADC and that A A , C C lie on the same side of P Q PQ is also I I . So the final answer is 1 2 I 1-2I . Now we calculate 2 I 2I . Note that

2 f ( x , y ) = x + y x y 1 x x y 1 y 2f(x,y)=x+y-\frac{xy}{1-x} -\frac{xy}{1-y} = 2 x + y ( 1 x 1 x ) x 1 y = 2x + y(1-\frac{x}{1-x}) - \frac{x}{1-y}

So

2 I = 0 1 d x 0 1 x [ 2 x + y ( 1 x 1 x ) x 1 y ] d y 2I = \int_{0}^{1} dx \int_{0}^{1-x} [2x + y(1-\frac{x}{1-x}) - \frac{x}{1-y}]dy = 0 1 [ 2 x ( 1 x ) + ( 1 x 1 x ) ( 1 x ) 2 2 + x ln ( 1 ( 1 x ) ) ] d x = \int_{0}^{1} [2x(1-x) + (1-\frac{x}{1-x})\cdot \frac{(1-x)^2}{2} + x \ln (1-(1-x))]dx = 0 1 [ 3 x ( 1 x ) 2 + ( 1 x ) 2 2 + x ln x ] d x = \int_{0}^{1} [ \frac{3x(1-x)}{2} + \frac{(1-x)^2}{2} + x\ln x] dx = 1 2 0 1 [ 2 x 2 + 1 + ( 2 x ln x + x ) ] d x = \frac{1}{2}\int_{0}^{1} [ -2x^2 +1 + (2x\ln x + x)]dx = 1 2 x = 0 1 d [ 2 3 x 3 + x + x 2 ln x ] = \frac{1}{2}\int_{x=0}^{1} d[-\frac{2}{3}x^3 + x + x^2\ln x] = 1 2 ( 2 3 + 1 + 0 ) = 1 6 . = \frac{1}{2}(-\frac{2}{3} + 1 + 0) = \frac{1}{6}.

Therefore 1 2 I = 5 6 1-2I = \frac{5}{6} .

Minor typos. Solution is correct but does ugly integration.

Calvin Lin Staff - 7 years ago
Derek Khu
May 20, 2014

Consider the square in a Cartesian coordinate system. Without loss of generality, let points A, B, C, D be at (0,0), (1,0), (1,1) and (0,1) respectively.

Now consider the case when P lies in ABC. Join line AP to meet BC at D, and join line CP to meet AB at E. Then A and C will be on the same side as PQ if and only if Q lies within triangle BPD or triangle APE. If point P is at (X,Y), then we can find the equations of lines AP and CP to be y = Y X x y = \frac{Y}{X}x and y = 1 Y 1 X x + 1 1 Y 1 X y = \frac{1-Y}{1-X}x + 1 - \frac{1-Y}{1-X} respectively. This would allow us to find the coordinates of D and E to be ( 1 , Y X ) (1, \frac{Y}{X}) and ( 1 1 X 1 Y , 0 ) (1 - \frac{1-X}{1-Y}, 0) respectively. The area of triangle APE will thus be 1 2 ( 1 1 X 1 Y ) ( Y ) \frac{1}{2}(1 - \frac{1-X}{1-Y})(Y) while the area of triangle BPD is 1 2 ( 1 Y X ) ( 1 X ) \frac{1}{2}(1 - \frac{Y}{X})(1-X) . Since the total area of ABCD is 1, the probability that A and C are on the same side as Q is thus the sum of these two areas, which is 1 2 ( 1 X Y X + 2 Y Y ( 1 X ) 1 Y ) \frac{1}{2}(1-X-\frac{Y}{X}+2Y-\frac{Y(1-X)}{1-Y}) . Since X varies from 0 to 1 and Y varies from 0 to X (given that P is in ABC), we have the probability that A and C are on the same side of PQ given that P is in ABC being 0 1 0 X 1 2 ( 1 X Y X + 2 Y Y ( 1 X ) 1 Y ) d Y d X 1 2 \dfrac{\int_0^1 \int_0^X \frac{1}{2}(1-X-\frac{Y}{X}+2Y-\frac{Y(1-X)}{1-Y}) \, dY \, dX}{\frac{1}{2}} . The denominator is 1 2 \frac{1}{2} because point P is only chosen from ABC, which has area 1 2 \frac{1}{2} . This fraction is equal to 0 1 0 X ( 1 X Y X + 2 Y Y ( 1 X ) 1 Y ) d Y d X \int_0^1 \int_0^X (1-X-\frac{Y}{X}+2Y-\frac{Y(1-X)}{1-Y}) \, dY \, dX .

Using simple integration for the first 4 terms in the integrand and integration by parts for the final term, we can evaluate the integral to be 0 1 3 2 X X 2 + ( 1 X ) l n ( 1 X ) d X \int_0^1 \frac{3}{2}X - X^2 + (1-X)ln(1-X) \, dX . Again, using simple integration for the first two terms and integration by parts for the final term in the integrand, we obtain [ 1 3 X 3 + X 2 1 2 X 1 2 ( X 2 + 1 ) l n ( 1 X ) ] 0 1 [-\frac{1}{3}X^3 + X^2 - \frac{1}{2}X - \frac{1}{2}(X^2+1)ln(1-X)]_0^1 . Keeping in mind that lim X 1 [ ( X 2 + 1 ) l n ( 1 X ) ] = 0 \displaystyle \lim_{X \rightarrow 1}[(X^2+1)ln(1-X)] = 0 , we can evaluate this integral to be 1 6 \frac{1}{6} . This is the probability that A and C are on the same side of PQ given that P is in ABC.

If P is in ADC, it is easy to realise that we are faced with a similar situation as when P is in ABC, so the probability that A and C are on the same side of PQ given that P is in ADC is also 1 6 \frac{1}{6} . Thus, the probability that A and C are on the same side of PQ is 1 6 \frac{1}{6} , and the probability that A and C are on different sides of PQ is 5 6 \frac{5}{6} . Our desired answer is thus 5 + 6 = 11 5+6=11 .

Correct but uses ugly integration.

Calvin Lin Staff - 7 years ago
James Aaronson
May 20, 2014

WLOG set ABCD has area 1.

We'll calculate the probability that A and C are on the same side of L 1 L_1 , and then subtract from 1 to find out the answer. We'll do this assuming that P lies in ABC, because the situation is symmetric

Suppose that P lies within triangle ABC. Say AP meets BC at M, and CP meets AB at N. So the event that A and C are on the same side of L 1 L_1 corresponds to the statement that Q lies within triangle PNA or PMC. Thus, it has probability equal to the area of those triangles.

Now, say that the perpendicular distances from P to BC and AB are x and y. So the area of PMC is x 2 ( 1 x ) ( 1 x y ) \frac{x}{2(1-x)} (1-x-y) . So, to work out the probability that Q lies within PMC, we must integrate x ( 1 x ) ( 1 x y ) \frac{x}{(1-x)} (1-x-y) over the triangle, where we've multiplied by 2 because P is distributed uniformly on ABC with area 1 2 \frac{1}{2} .

We do the y integral from 0 to 1-x first to get x ( 1 x ) 2 \frac{x(1-x)}{2} and then we do the x integral from 0 to 1 and it comes out to 1 12 \frac{1}{12} . Finally, we double this because Q could have been within PNA, to get final probability 1 6 \frac{1}{6} .

Finally, we subtract from 1 to get answer 5 6 \frac{5}{6} .

No explanation for evaluation of the integral.

Calvin Lin Staff - 7 years ago
Lorenz Eberhardt
May 20, 2014

One randomly chooses one point P ( x , y ) P(x,y) . Besides, let the length of one side be 1 1 . Further f f is the line connecting A A and P P , E E is the intesection of f f with side B C BC . g g is the line connecting C C and P P and F F the intersection of g g with side C D CD .

Obviously, the second point Q Q has to be in the area A P C D APCD or F C E P FCEP to fulfill the condition that A A and C C lie on different sides on the line P Q PQ .

One can easily calculate the sum of these areas: A = 1 ( 1 x ) ( x y ) 2 x 1 2 y ( 1 1 x 1 y ) A=1-\frac{(1-x)(x-y)}{2 x}-\frac{1}{2} y \left(1-\frac{1-x}{1-y}\right)

Hence the probability is: p = 0 1 0 1 1 ( 1 x ) ( x y ) 2 x 1 2 y ( 1 1 x 1 y ) d x d y = 5 6 p=\int_0^1 \int_0^1 1-\frac{(1-x)(x-y)}{2 x}-\frac{1}{2} y \left(1-\frac{1-x}{1-y}\right) \mathrm{d} x\mathrm{d} y=\frac{5}{6}

So, the answer is 5 + 6 = 11 5+6=11 .

Seems likely the integral was solved using a solver, and the line through A and P may not intersect the side BC.

Calvin Lin Staff - 7 years ago
Joshua Xiong
May 20, 2014

First, draw A C AC . Without a loss of generality, let P P be in A B C \triangle ABC . Extend A P AP to meet B C BC at E E , and extend C P CP to meet A B AB at F F . It can be easily seen that the locus of points Q Q that satisfy the conditions are the interiors of the quadrilaterals A D C P ADCP and B E P F BEPF . The ratio of the area of the locus to the area of the square is then the probability.

For now, we will disregard A D C \triangle ADC (since that is in common to all of the loci), and focus on A B C \triangle ABC .

Let the area of a locus at a point P P be denoted as [ L ] P [L]_P . Draw the medians A X AX , B Y BY , and C Z CZ of A B C \triangle ABC . We note that at the median G G of A B C \triangle ABC , [ L ] = 2 3 [ A B C ] [L]= \frac{2}{3} [ABC] . Further, if P P is located in C M Y \triangle CMY , Y M A \triangle YMA , M B X \triangle MBX , or M B Z \triangle MBZ (let these points be called P 1 P_1 ), 2 3 [ A B C ] [ L P 1 ] [ A B C ] \frac{2}{3}[ABC]\le [L_{P_1}]\le [ABC] . However, if P P is located in C M X \triangle CMX or A M Z \triangle AMZ (let these points be called P 2 P_2 ), we know that 0 [ L ] 2 3 [ A B C ] 0\le [L]\le \frac{2}{3}[ABC] .

Since [ L ] [L] is continuous throughout the triangle, we may map any point P 2 P_2 to a point P 1 P_1 and its reflection across B Y BY (we will call this P 1 P_1^{\prime} ), such that [ L P 2 ] + [ L P 1 ] + [ L P 1 ] = [ L P 2 ] + 2 [ L P 1 ] = 2 [ A B C ] ( 1 ) [L_{P_2}]+[L_{P_1}]+[L_{P_1^{\prime}}]=[L_{P_2}]+2[L_{P_1}]=2[ABC]\qquad (1) . Likewise, we may map any point P 1 P_1 to its reflection across B Y BY and a point P 2 P_2 , with the same condition as above.

Next, we note that [ C M Y ] + [ Y M A ] + [ M B X ] + [ M B Z ] = 2 ( [ C M X ] + [ A M Z ] ) [CMY]+[YMA] +[MBX] +[MBZ]=2([CMX]+[AMZ]) . Since we are mapping two points of P 1 P_1 to one point in P 2 P_2 , we can create a "bijection" between these sets that satisfy ( 1 ) (1) because the sets are of proportional areas. Thus, the expected value of [ L ] [L] for all points is 2 3 [ A B C ] = 1 3 [ A B C D ] \frac{2}{3}[ABC]=\frac{1}{3}[ABCD] (only considering A B C \triangle ABC ).

The same is true if P P is located in A D C \triangle ADC , so the probability that A A and C C are on opposite sides of P Q PQ is 1 3 [ A B C D ] + 1 2 [ A B C D ] [ A B C D ] = 5 6 \frac{\frac{1}{3}[ABCD]+\frac{1}{2}[ABCD]}{[ABCD]}=\frac{5}{6} , where the 1 2 [ A B C D ] \frac{1}{2}[ABCD] comes from the triangle we ignored earlier. Therefore, the answer is 5 + 6 = 11 5+6=\boxed{11} .

I'm not sure what M is, and I think he means G.

I'm not sure what he means by map any point P 2 to a point P 1 and it's reflection, or why those areas = [ABC]. Also, just because the mapping is 1 to 1, doesn't mean that it is measure preserving (like his bijection).

Calvin Lin Staff - 7 years ago
Calvin Lin Staff
May 13, 2014

We will assume that the square has unit side length. By symmetry, we may assume the point P P is contained in triangle A B C ABC . Let X X be the point where the line through A A and P P intersects B C BC , and Y Y the point where the line through C C and P P intersects A B AB . We see that when Q Q is in P X C PXC or P Y A PYA that the line through P P and Q Q has A A and C C on the same side of it, and when Q Q is in B X P Y BXPY or P C D A PCDA , the line through P P and Q Q has A A and C C on opposite sides.

The desired answer follows from the following two lemmas (the proofs are left as exercises to the reader):

Lemma 1. Let S S be a point chosen at random from triangle T U V TUV . Then the expected value E ( [ S T U ] ) = [ T U V ] 3 E([STU]) = \frac{[TUV]}{3} .

Lemma 2. Let S S be a point chosen at random from triangle T U V TUV and W W the point where the line through S S and T T intersects U V UV .
Then the expected value E ( [ T W U ] ) = [ T U V ] 2 E([TWU])= \frac{[TUV]}{2} .

From Lemma 1, we see that E ( [ A P C ] ) = [ A B C ] 3 = 1 6 E([APC]) = \frac{[ABC]}{3} = \frac{1}{6} . From Lemma 2, we see that E ( [ A X C ] ) = [ A B C ] 2 = 1 4 E([AXC]) = \frac{[ABC]}{2} = \frac{1}{4} . Combining these, and using Linearity of expectation, we have that E ( [ P X C ] ) = 1 12 E([PXC]) = \frac{1}{12} . By symmetry, we also get that E ( [ P Y A ] ) = 1 12 E([PYA]) = \frac{1}{12} . Thus, the probability that the line does not separate A A and C C is 1 6 \frac{1}{6} , so the probability that it does is 5 6 \frac{5}{6} , and so a + b = 5 + 6 = 11 a + b = 5 + 6 = 11 .

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