Sequence like Fibonacci

The sequence a 0 , a 1 , a 2 , . . . a_{0}, a_{1},a_{2},... satisfies a 1 = 2 a_1=2 , a 2 = 3 a_2=3 and a n = a n 1 a n 2 a_n=a_{n-1}a_{n-2} for n 3 n\ge 3 .

How many possible values of k 2017 k\leq2017 are there such that a k = x y a_k = x^y , where x x and y y are positive integers and y > 1 y>1 ?


The answer is 0.

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1 solution

Zach Abueg
Jul 10, 2017

If the prime factorization of a number n n is

n = p 1 α 1 p 2 α 2 . . . p k α k \large n = p_1^{\alpha_1}p_2^{\alpha_2}...p_k^{\alpha_k}

where p i p_i are distinct primes, then n n is a perfect power x y x^y if and only if gcd ( α 1 , α 2 , . . . , α k ) > 1 \gcd(\alpha_1, \alpha_2,..., \alpha_k) > 1 . If gcd ( α 1 , α 2 , . . . , α k ) = 1 \gcd(\alpha_1, \alpha_2,..., \alpha_k) = 1 , then n n cannot be expressed as a perfect power. This is easier to see with an example:

Suppose that n = p i q i n = p^iq^i , where p p and q q are distinct primes. If gcd ( i , j ) = k > 1 \gcd(i, j) = k > 1 , then n n can be expressed as n = p i q j = p f k q g k n = p^iq^j = p^{fk}q^{gk} where gcd ( f , g ) = 1 \gcd(f, g) = 1 . Hence, n = ( p f q g ) k n = \left(p^fq^g\right)^k . Letting m = p f q g m = p^fq^g , we have n = ( p f q g ) k = m k n = \left(p^fq^g\right)^k = m^k . How about a more concrete example?

Let's see if 1728 1728 can be expressed as a perfect power. Its prime factorization is 3 3 2 6 3^3 \cdot 2^6 , and we notice that gcd ( 3 , 6 ) = 3 > 1 \gcd(3, 6) = 3 > 1 . Rewriting that product as ( 3 1 2 2 ) 3 \left(3^1 \cdot 2^2\right)^3 , we see that 1728 1728 is indeed 1 2 3 12^3 .

Now, let's examine the first few terms of the sequence.

a 1 = 2 = 2 1 a 2 = 3 = 3 1 a 3 = 6 = 2 1 3 1 a 4 = 18 = 2 1 3 2 a 5 = 108 = 2 2 3 3 a 6 = 1944 = 2 3 3 5 a 7 = 209952 = 2 5 3 8 a 8 = 408146688 = 2 8 3 13 \displaystyle \begin{aligned} & a_1 = 2 = 2^1 \\ & a_2 = 3 = 3^1 \\ & a_3 = 6 = 2^1 3^1 \\ & a_4 = 18 = 2^1 3^2 \\ & a_5 = 108 = 2^2 3^3 \\ & a_6 = 1944 = 2^3 3^5 \\ & a_7 = 209952 = 2^5 3^8 \\ & a_8 = 408146688 = 2^8 3^{13} \\ & \cdot \\ & \cdot \\ & \cdot \end{aligned}

We can write a general term for a n a_n :

a n = { 2 , n = 1 3 , n = 2 2 F n 2 3 F n 1 , n 3 \large a_n = \begin{cases} 2, n = 1 \\ 3, n = 2 \\ 2^{F_{n - 2}} \ 3^{F_{n - 1}}, n \geq 3 \end{cases}

where F k F_k is the k th k^{\text{th}} Fibonacci with F 1 = 1 F_1 = 1 and F 2 = 1 F_2 = 1 . Where'd the Fibonacci numbers come from? They result in multiplying successive powers of 2 2 and 3 3 , with powers adding up due to exponent rules.

Now let's prove that any two consecutive Fibonacci numbers are coprime using induction.

We have F 1 = 1 , F 2 = 1 , F 3 = 2 , F_1 = 1, F_2 = 1, F_3 = 2,… , so gcd ( F 1 , F 2 ) = 1 \gcd(F_1, F_2) = 1 . Hence, the base case P ( 1 ) P(1) is true.

Now suppose that gcd ( F n , F n + 1 ) = 1 \gcd(F_n, F_{n+1}) = 1 ; we will show that gcd ( F n + 1 , F n + 2 ) = 1 \gcd(F_{n+1}, F_{n+2}) = 1 . Consider gcd ( F n + 1 , F n + 2 ) = gcd ( F n + 1 , F n + 1 + F n ) \gcd(F_{n+1}, F_{n+2}) = \gcd(F_{n+1}, F_{n+1} + F_n) . Then gcd ( F n + 1 , F n + 1 + F n ) = gcd ( F n + 1 , F n ) = 1 \gcd(F_{n+1}, F_{n+1} + F_n) = \gcd(F_{n+1}, F_n) = 1 , because gcd ( a , a + b ) = gcd ( a , b ) \gcd(a, a + b) = \gcd(a, b) . We have proven that P ( n + 1 ) P(n + 1) is true.

Hence, gcd ( F n , F n + 1 ) = 1 n > 0 \gcd(F_n, F_{n+1}) = 1 \ \forall \ n > 0 .

We can see that a 1 = 2 a_1 = 2 and a 2 = 3 a_2 = 3 cannot be expressed in the form x y x^y for positive integers x , y x, y with y > 1 y > 1 . Since consecutive Fibonacci numbers F n 2 F_{n - 2} and F n 1 F_{n - 1} will always be coprime for n 3 n \geq 3 , a n = 2 F n 3 3 F n 2 a_n = 2^{F_{n - 3}} \ 3^{F_{n - 2}} cannot be expressed as a perfect power x y x^y .

Our answer is 0 \boxed{0} .

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