If x 1 , x 2 , x 3 , … is a sequence of positive reals such that k = 1 ∑ ∞ x k converges, does k = 1 ∑ ∞ ( e x k − 1 ) converge?
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Since we can choose K such that, 0 < x k < 1 , ∀ k ≥ K , we have e x k ≤ 1 + 2 x k , ∀ k ≥ K . This follows because, for all 0 ≤ y ≤ 1 , we have the inequality exp ( y ) ≤ 1 + 2 y , which can be verified using calculus. Thus, k ≥ K ∑ ( exp ( x k ) − 1 ) ≤ 2 k ≥ K ∑ x k < ∞
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I think some people won't immediately see why e x k ≤ 1 + 2 x k for sufficiently large k . Would you mind explaining with slightly more detail?
Ah, very nice comparison!
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The motivation comes from using the approximation e x = 1 + x for small x ... "Well, how much is e x like 1 + x ? "
The question could probably be generalized with Taylor series of arbitrary functions.
let consider f ( y ) = e y over the interval [ 0 , x ] for x positive.
By the Mean value theorem , it exists c in [ 0 , x ] such: f ′ ( c ) = x − 0 f ( x ) − f ( 0 ) This yields: x e x − 1 = e c < e x
So that for x in [ 0 , 1 ] e x − 1 < e × x
Since ∑ k = 1 ∞ x k converges, lim k → ∞ x k = 0 .
Thus, for sufficiently large k ≥ K , 0 < x k < 1 , implying that for k ≥ K , e x k − 1 < x k × e .
by the Comparison Test of convergence ∑ k = 1 ∞ ( e x k − 1 ) est convergente.
How does it come e^c < e^x? Also
e^x -1< e*x???
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c ∈ ( 0 , x ) ⟹ c < x ⟹ e c < e x
x e x − 1 < e x ⟹ e x − 1 < e ∗ x
Can some give explanation?
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Note that e x − 1 = x + 2 ! x 2 + 3 ! x 3 + ⋯ . Since ∑ k = 1 ∞ x k converges, lim k → ∞ x k = 0 . Thus, for sufficiently large k ≥ K , 0 < x k < 1 , implying that x k > x k 2 > x k 3 > ⋯ . So, for k ≥ K , e x k − 1 = x k + 2 ! x k 2 + 3 ! x k 3 + ⋯ < x k + 2 ! x k + 3 ! x k + ⋯ = x k ( 1 + 2 ! 1 + 3 ! 1 + ⋯ ) = x k ( e − 1 ) .
The sum ∑ k = 1 K − 1 ( e x k − 1 ) is finitely many finite terms; then, k = K ∑ ∞ ( e x k − 1 ) < ( e − 1 ) ⋅ k = K ∑ ∞ x k , and the right hand side converges since ∑ k = 1 ∞ x k converges.