We can use taylor series expansion to find an infinite series representation of radical functions. However can you find an infinite series representation of 1 − x 2 1 without using taylor series? If this series can be represented as n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( 1 − x 2 ) B n + D C ( − 1 ) n x A n
and C , D are relatively prime find A + B + C + D
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This is not a series representation of the given function in the essence of the term. A series representation of a function f ( x ) gives a series formed by its argument x . At the most it can be called an identity.
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A series is a sum of a sequence, a function may be expressed as series if they are equal. I don't think that it has to be derived from the function itself as long as they are equivalent.
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We know ∫ 1 − x 2 1 d x = arcsin x
and , arctan x = n = 0 ∑ ∞ 2 n + 1 ( − 1 ) n x 2 n + 1
Now arcsin x = arctan ( 1 − x 2 x )
substitute this to arctan series expansion
arcsin x = arctan ( 1 − x 2 x ) = n = 0 ∑ ∞ 2 n + 1 ( − 1 ) n ( 1 − x 2 x ) 2 n + 1
arcsin x = n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( 1 − x 2 ) n + 2 1 ( 2 n + 1 ) ( − 1 ) n x 2 n + 1
we differentiate this to obtain 1 − x 2 1 on left side and on right side we will get n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( 1 − x 2 ) n + 2 3 ( − 1 ) n x 2 n after simplification