Shifting quadratic polynomials

Algebra Level 3

Suppose I have a quadratic function: f ( x ) = a x 2 + b x + c f(x)=\textcolor{#D61F06}{a}x^2+\textcolor{#D61F06}{b}x+\textcolor{#D61F06}{c} . If I shift the coefficients to the left, I'll have a new function: g ( x ) = b x 2 + c x + a g(x)=\textcolor{#D61F06}{b}x^2+\textcolor{#D61F06}{c}x+\textcolor{#D61F06}{a} . In some cases, for every x x , f ( x ) = g ( x ) f(x)=g(x) .

Ex:

f ( x ) = 3 x 2 + 3 x + 3 g ( x ) = 3 x 2 + 3 x + 3 f(x)=\textcolor{#D61F06}{3}x^2+\textcolor{#D61F06}{3}x+\textcolor{#D61F06}{3}\\ g(x)=\textcolor{#D61F06}{3}x^2+\textcolor{#D61F06}{3}x+\textcolor{#D61F06}{3}

How many functions are there that satisfy this property for every x x and have distinct coefficients? For example, the one above doesn't have distinct coefficients.


The answer is 0.

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1 solution

Bryn Dickinson Staff
Feb 15, 2018

If two polynomials are equal for all x x , their coefficients are the same.

To see this, suppose you have some polynomials p ( x ) = i = 0 a i x i p(x)=\sum_{i=0}^\infty a_i x^i and q ( x ) = i = 0 b i x i q(x)=\sum_{i=0}^\infty b_i x^i . First suppose p ( x ) = q ( x ) p(x)=q(x) for all x x . This must therefore be true when x = 0 x=0 , i.e. p ( 0 ) = q ( 0 ) p(0)=q(0) . All polynomials are infinitely differentiable everywhere, so for any k k we can differentiate p ( x ) q ( x ) = 0 p(x)-q(x)=0 and find d k d x k ( p ( x ) q ( x ) ) x = 0 = k ! ( a k b k ) = 0 \left.\frac{\mathrm{d}^k}{\mathrm{d}x^k} (p(x)-q(x))\right|_{x=0}=k! (a_k-b_k) = 0 so a k = b k a_k = b_k for all k k . There's probably an easier way to show that!

In this case, if f ( x ) = g ( x ) f(x)=g(x) for all x x , then we must have a = b a=b , b = c b=c and c = a c=a . This means the coefficients cannot be distinct.

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