∫ − 1 3 ( arctan ( 1 + x 2 x ) + arctan ( x 1 + x 2 ) ) d x
If the above integral can be expressed as A π B , where A and B are natural numbers . Find A + B
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Careful there, cot β = tan ( 2 π − β ) is indeed true, but so is cot β = tan ( 2 5 π − β ) . So, why can't we have α + β = 2 5 π ?
Bonus question : Can you find the fallacy in the working below?
Let y = arctan ( 1 + x 2 x ) + arctan ( x 1 + x 2 ) , then d x d y = 0 . So y is a constant. Substituting x = 1 tells us that y is a constant function and is equal to 2 π . Hence, our integral is equal to ∫ − 1 3 2 π d x = 2 π .
Response to the moderator's bonus question: arctan((1+x^2)/x) is undefined at x=0, and is therefore indifferentiable. Since it is not continuous on the interval {x|-1≤x≤3}, then sum of arctan(x/(1+x^2 )) and arctan((1+x^2)/x) is also discontinuous at x=0 (and thus in the range {x|-1≤x≤3}). The derivative of y does not give insight into the behavior of the function around x=0. Additionally, arctan(u)+arctan(1/u) = π/2 for positive u, and -π/2 for negative u.
Relevant wiki: Inverse Trigonometric Identities
If x > 0 , then we can construct a right-angle triangle with base and height of x and 1 + x 2 .
Looking at the diagram, we have the triangles angle sum of a + b + 2 π = π , or equivalently, a + b = 2 π .
Because tan a = 1 + x 2 1 and tan b = x 1 + x 2 , then for x > 0 , ( arctan ( 1 + x 2 x ) + arctan ( x 1 + x 2 ) ) = a + b = 2 π .
Since the integrand (call it g ( x ) ) in question is an odd function , then the integral in question can be expressed as
∫ − 1 3 g ( x ) d x = = 0 ∫ − 1 1 g ( x ) d x + ∫ 1 3 g ( x ) d x = 0 + ∫ 1 3 2 π d x = ( 3 − 1 ) ( 2 π ) = π .
Hence, A = 1 , B = 1 ⇒ A + B = 2 .
Note : A common mistake for students to assume is that ( arctan ( 1 + x 2 x ) + arctan ( x 1 + x 2 ) ) is always equal to 2 π .
Great setup in explaining why the integrand is, suprisingly, not always a constant!
Let's analyze the function, y = tan − 1 x 1
Substitute tan θ = x tan ( 2 π − θ ) = x 1 θ = tan − 1 x
So, y = tan − 1 [ tan ( 2 π − θ ) ]
Case 1 x ≥ 0
⇒ θ ∈ ( 0 , 2 π ) ⇒ ( 2 π − θ ) ∈ ( 0 , 2 π ) ⇒ tan − 1 [ tan ( 2 π − θ ) ] = ( 2 π − θ )
Case 2 x ≤ 0
⇒ θ ∈ ( − 2 π , 0 ) ⇒ ( 2 π − θ ) ∈ ( 2 π , π )
Remember that for ϕ ∈ ( 2 π , π ) , tan − 1 ( tan ϕ ) = ϕ − π
So, tan − 1 [ tan ( 2 π − θ ) ] = ( 2 π − θ ) − π = − 2 π − θ
∴ tan − 1 x 1 = ⎩ ⎪ ⎨ ⎪ ⎧ 2 π − tan − 1 x − 2 π − tan − 1 x for x > 0 for x < 0
So our integral, I = ∫ − 1 3 tan − 1 ( 1 + x 2 x ) + tan − 1 ( x 1 + x 2 ) d x = ∫ − 1 0 − 2 π d x + ∫ 0 3 2 π d x = π
Yes. This essentially boils down to recognizing that the integrand is a piecewise function.
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Let α = arctan ( 1 + x 2 x ) and β = arctan ( x 1 + x 2 ) ⟹ tan α = 1 + x 2 x and tan β = x 1 + x 2 . ⟹ tan α = tan β 1 = cot β = tan ( 2 π − β ) , ⟹ α = 2 π − β ⟹ α + β = 2 π for α > 0 and β > 0 . We note that when x < 0 , α , β < 0 , and α + β = − 2 π . Therefore, we have:
I = ∫ − 1 3 ( arctan ( 1 + x 2 x ) + arctan ( x 1 + x 2 ) ) d x = ∫ − 1 3 ( α + β ) d x = ∫ − 1 0 ( α + β ) d x + ∫ 0 3 ( α + β ) d x = ∫ − 1 0 − 2 π d x + ∫ 0 3 2 π d x = − 2 π + 2 3 π = π
⟹ A + B = 1 + 1 = 2