Simple isn't it? #3

Consider two identical sticks of length 16 m, each carrying charge 40 C. The distance between their centers is 20 m. Calculate the force of repulsion on each stick due to the other stick.

Details

  • Take 1 4 π ε 0 = 9 × 1 0 9 Nm 2 / C 2 \displaystyle\frac{1}{4\pi \varepsilon_0 } =9\times 10^9\ \text{Nm}^2/\text{C}^2 .
This problem is of this set.


The answer is 57467882673.673951860620335834162.

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4 solutions

Alex Li
Jul 14, 2015

Coulomb's Law states that the force is k q 1 q 2 r 2 \frac{k q_1 q_2}{r^2} . Since the charges and Coulomb's constant are already known, we need to find the expected value of 1 r 2 \frac{1}{r^2} , for two randomly chosen points, one on the first bar, and one on the second.

Suppose the bars are on a number line, with the first bar beginning at 0 0 and ending at 16 16 . The second bar then starts at 20 20 and ends at 36 36 .

Let the first point be located at x x . Then, the expected value is 1 16 20 36 1 ( y x ) 2 d y = 1 16 ( 1 36 x ( 1 20 x ) ) = 1 16 ( 1 20 x 1 36 x ) \frac{1}{16}\int_{20}^{36} \frac{1}{(y-x)^2}dy=\frac{1}{16}(-\frac{1}{36-x}-(-\frac{1}{20-x}))=\frac{1}{16}(\frac{1}{20-x}-\frac{1}{36-x}) . Now the expected value of this, as x x ranges from 0 0 to 16 16 , is 1 256 0 16 1 20 x 1 36 x d x = 1 256 ( ( ln 20 16 36 16 ) ( ln 20 0 36 0 ) ) = 1 256 ln ( 20 36 × 20 4 ) = 1 256 ln 400 144 = 0.00399 \frac{1}{256}\int_0^{16}{\frac{1}{20-x}-\frac{1}{36-x}}dx=\frac{1}{256}((-\ln{\frac{20-16}{36-16}})-(-\ln{\frac{20-0}{36-0}}))=\frac{1}{256}\ln(\frac{20}{36}\times\frac{20}{4})=\frac{1}{256}\ln{\frac{400}{144}}=0.00399 .

Finally, by Coulomb's Law, the answer is 40 × 40 × ( 9 × 1 0 9 ) × 0.00399 = 5.75 × 1 0 10 40\times40\times(9\times10^9)\times{0.00399}=\boxed{5.75\times10^{10}}

Moderator note:

Solid, standard solution.

Nice method +1

Aditya Kumar - 5 years, 11 months ago
Saurabh Meena
Aug 18, 2015

Nice question but not worth level 5. solution solution

Atreyee Saha
Jul 18, 2015

By coulomb's law, F = k q 1 q 2 r 2 k\frac{q_1q_2}{r^2} And the distance between the inner edges of the two rods is 4m.Considering uniform charge distribution, charge per unit length is 40 16 \frac{40}{16} . Considering a very small element dx on any one of the rods at a distance x from the inner edge, the total force exerted on it by every small element dy at a distance y form the inner edge on the other rod is, k 4 0 2 1 6 2 d x d y ( 4 + x + y ) 2 k\frac{40^2}{16^2}\frac{dx dy}{(4+x+y)^2} Integrating this throughout the length of the first and then the second rod, k 4 0 2 1 6 2 0 16 d y 0 16 d x ( 4 + x + y ) 2 k\frac{40^2}{16^2}\int_{0}^{16}dy\int_{0}^{16}\frac{dx}{(4+x+y)^2} . Solving the integration and substituting the value of k , the answer is 5.7468 E 10 \boxed{5.7468E10} .

I used the same method

Aditya Kumar - 5 years, 11 months ago
Thaddeus Abiy
Jul 17, 2015

Here is the straight forward bulldozer way of solving the problem. We start by finding the electric field contribution E ( R ) \overrightarrow{E}(R) of a thin rod of length L L at a point R R . We assume that the rod has a uniform charge distribution λ \lambda .

To do so we consider a infinitesimal charge d q dq on the rod which is a distance x x away and its contribution to the red point a distance R R away from the origin. If the rod is uniformly charged then d q = λ d x dq = \lambda dx . ( d x dx is an infinitesimal distance away from x x ). Thus from coloumb's law

d E ( R ) = k λ d x ( R x ) 2 \overrightarrow{dE}(R) = \frac{k\lambda dx}{(R-x)^2} We then integrate from 0 0 to L L , to obtain the electric field due to a rod at a point R R away from its furthest edge: E ( R ) = 0 L d E ( R ) = k λ ( 1 R L 1 R ) \overrightarrow{E}(R) = \int_{0}^{L} \overrightarrow{dE}(R) = k\lambda(\frac{1}{R-L} - \frac{1}{R})

Now consider two rods one with its edge at the ( 0 , 0 ) (0,0) and the other d d away from the origin. The infinitesimal force contribution due to the left most rod on the right one is d F ( x ) = d q E ( x ) = λ 2 d x E ( x ) = k Q 1 Q 2 l 1 l 2 d d + l 2 1 x l 1 1 x d x d\overrightarrow{F}(x) = dq\overrightarrow{E}(x) = \lambda_2 dx \overrightarrow{E}(x) = \frac{kQ1Q2}{l_1 l_2} \int_{d}^{d+l_2} \frac{1}{x-l_1} - \frac{1}{x} dx

Finally, a little python script to do the integral.(Not that its hard, It just because Im lazy and numerical integration is cool)

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from scipy import integrate
l1 = l2 = 16
Q1 = Q2 = 40
d , k = 20 , 9e9
def f(x):
    return 1.0/(x-l1) - 1.0/(x)
print (k*Q1*Q2)/(l1 * l2) * integrate.quad( f , d , d + l2 )[0]

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>>> 
57467882673.7

Thoughts

I am curious if such a configuration is possible. 40 C 40C seems like an awful lot of charge. I know air breaks down and becomes a conductor when the electric field is too big. Even assuming the rods are in a vaccum , I wonder if the charge put in the metal exceeds the maximum possible surface charge density and the rods will start exhibiting field electron emission . Does anyone know how to calculate this? I might be wrong.

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