Simple looking integral #2

Calculus Level 3

d x ( x 2 + 1 ) 3 \large \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{dx}{(x^2+1)^3}

If the integral above equals to a π b \frac {a\pi}b for coprime positive integers a , b a,b , find a + b a+b .


The answer is 11.

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2 solutions

We shall make a simple substitution here.

Let x = tan ( θ ) x = \tan(\theta)

Hence:

d x = sec 2 ( θ ) d θ d x 1 + x 2 = d θ dx = \sec^2(\theta) d\theta \Rightarrow \frac{dx}{1+x^2} = d\theta

The limits correspondingly change to π 2 & π 2 \frac{-\pi}{2} \text{ \& } \frac{\pi}{2}

I = π 2 π 2 d θ ( sec 2 θ ) 2 = π 2 π 2 d θ cos 4 θ I = \displaystyle \int_{-\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \dfrac{d\theta}{(\sec^2{\theta})^2} = \int_{-\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} d\theta \cos^4\theta

I = π 2 π 2 d θ cos 4 θ = 3 π 8 I = \displaystyle \int_{-\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} d\theta \cos^4\theta = \dfrac{3\pi}{8}

Note

If you want to evaluate I = π 2 π 2 d θ cos 4 θ I = \displaystyle \int_{-\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} d\theta \cos^4\theta take cos 4 θ = ( 1 + cos 2 θ 2 ) 2 \cos^4\theta = ( \dfrac{1 + \cos2\theta}{2} )^2

did the same way

Shashank Rustagi - 5 years, 12 months ago
Kartik Sharma
Jun 11, 2015

Well, I will use Contour integration here.

Let's just assume a contour C C in the argand plane as a semicircle with radius a a with positive complex axis in the circle, then the following will be our integral

a a d z ( z 2 + 1 ) 3 \displaystyle \int_{-a}^{a}{\frac{dz}{{({z}^{2}+1)}^{3}}}

By Cauchy's theorem(as in the contour they all will homotopic)-

C d z ( z 2 + 1 ) 3 = a a d z ( z 2 + 1 ) 3 + a r c d z ( z 2 + 1 ) 3 \displaystyle \int_{C}{\frac{dz}{{({z}^{2}+1)}^{3}}} = \int_{-a}^{a}{\frac{dz}{{({z}^{2}+1)}^{3}}} + \int_{arc}{\frac{dz}{{({z}^{2}+1)}^{3}}}

a a d z ( z 2 + 1 ) 3 = C d z ( z 2 + 1 ) 3 a r c d z ( z 2 + 1 ) 3 \displaystyle \int_{-a}^{a}{\frac{dz}{{({z}^{2}+1)}^{3}}} = \int_{C}{\frac{dz}{{({z}^{2}+1)}^{3}}} - \int_{arc}{\frac{dz}{{({z}^{2}+1)}^{3}}}

First, let's compute our line integral first

By Cauchy's General Formula

f ( n ) ( z 0 ) = n ! 2 π ι C f ( z ) ( z z 0 ) n + 1 \displaystyle {f}^{(n)}({z}_{0}) = \frac{n!}{2\pi\iota}\int_{C}{\frac{f(z)}{{(z-{z}_{0})}^{n+1}}}

Now, let's try to make our integral in this form

We can write it as

C 1 ( z + i ) 3 ( z i ) 3 \displaystyle \int_{C}{\frac{\frac{1}{{(z+i)}^{3}}}{{(z-i)}^{3}}} , Then f ( z ) = 1 ( z + i ) 3 , z 0 = i f(z) = \frac{1}{{(z+i)}^{3}}, {z}_{0} = i

Why we write like this? There is one more possibility, why we didn't chose that? Because the function f ( z ) f(z) is not analytic in the contour we have chosen then.

As a result of substituting,

C d z ( z 2 + 1 ) 3 = 3 π 8 \displaystyle \int_{C}{\frac{dz}{{({z}^{2}+1)}^{3}}} = \frac{3\pi}{8}

Just substitute in the Cauchy's Formula, differentiate twice then put z = i z=i , you are done!

Hence,

a a d z ( z 2 + 1 ) 3 = 3 π 8 a r c d z ( z 2 + 1 ) 3 \displaystyle \int_{-a}^{a}{\frac{dz}{{({z}^{2}+1)}^{3}}} = \frac{3\pi}{8} - \int_{arc}{\frac{dz}{{({z}^{2}+1)}^{3}}}

For our 2nd integral, use Estimation Lemma or ML inequality,

a r c d z ( z 2 + 1 ) 3 a π ( a 2 1 ) 3 \displaystyle \left|\int_{arc}{\frac{dz}{{({z}^{2}+1)}^{3}}}\right| \le \frac{a\pi}{{({a}^{2}-1)}^{3}}

As a , a π ( a 2 1 ) 3 0 \displaystyle a \Rightarrow \infty, \frac{a\pi}{{({a}^{2}-1)}^{3}} \Rightarrow 0

Therefore, a r c d z ( z 2 + 1 ) 3 0 \displaystyle \int_{arc}{\frac{dz}{{({z}^{2}+1)}^{3}}} \Rightarrow 0

As a result, we are done with our answer,

d x ( x 2 + 1 ) 3 = \displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}{\frac{dx}{{({x}^{2}+1)}^{3}}} =

3 π 8 \displaystyle \frac{3\pi}{8}

This is my first solution involving complex analysis so if anyone finds any flaw, please let me know.

Kartik Sharma - 6 years ago

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Simply putting x=tan(\theta), yields the answer in seconds, there's no need for such a long solution.

Ronak Agarwal - 6 years ago

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Totally agree with you! Just that I was practicing and yeah Level 5 rating(when I solved) got me thinking of this straightaway.

Kartik Sharma - 6 years ago

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