⌊ 1 0 0 0 i = 1 ∑ ∞ i ! 1 ⌋ = ? Notation: ⌊ ⋅ ⌋ denotes the floor function .
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I think the problem is over rated! @Archit Boobna
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Even you did it wrong when i asked in class
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That was just a simple mistake. When things are done without writing, these mistake's rising probability increases.
please check the solution once again .. The fallacy i found in your solution is the addition of 1. you added 2 on the LHS (1 + a term is included in the sum whose value is 1) ans the RHS was intact.
e x = ∑ n = 0 ∞ n ! x n
e x = 1 + x + 2 ! x 2 + 3 ! x 3 + ⋯
x = 1 ⟹ e = 1 + 1 + 2 ! 1 + 3 ! 1 + ⋯
⟹ e − 1 = 1 + 2 ! 1 + 3 ! 1 + ⋯ = ∑ n = 1 ∞ n ! 1
Therefore, 1 0 0 0 ∑ n = 1 ∞ n ! 1 = 1 0 0 0 ( e − 1 ) = 1 0 0 0 ( 1 . 7 1 8 ) = 1 7 1 8 .
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According to Taylor's expansion of e x , n = 1 ∑ ∞ n ! x n = e x . Therefore for x = 1 , we have: n = 1 ∑ ∞ n ! 1 = e => 1 + n = 0 ∑ ∞ n ! 1 = e => n = 0 ∑ ∞ n ! 1 = e − 1 = 1 . 7 1 8 : )