f ( x ) f ( x 1 ) = f ( x ) + f ( x 1 )
A polynomial f satisfies the above equation and f ( 1 0 ) = 1 0 0 1 . Find the value of f ( 2 0 ) .
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@Gautam Jha nicely done, upvoted!
Very nicely done!
@Gautam Jha thanks for the proof
how do you get equation one
thanks for the solution'
Any function satisfying
f ( x ) . f ( x 1 ) = f ( x ) + f ( x 1 ) is f ( x ) = 1 ± x n
given f ( 1 0 ) = 1 0 0 1
1 + 1 0 n = 1 0 0 1
n = 3
f ( x ) = 1 + x 3
f ( 2 0 ) = 1 + ( 2 0 ) 3
f ( 2 0 ) = 8 0 0 1
Sandeep Bhardwaj brought up a valid point, why does f ( x ) = 1 ± x n ?
Can you prove that f ( x ) satisfying the given functional equation will be of the form 1 ± x n ?
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Well sir i dont know how to prove it but i learnt its result
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Ok, then try to prove it.
Hint : Coefficient compare. Or playing with the given condition followed by f .
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In response to challenge master note and Sandeep Bhardwaj Sir
First of all, rearranging the given condition we can also write:
f ( x 1 ) = f ( x ) − 1 f ( x ) ..................... (1)
Let g ( x ) = f ( x ) − 1 be a polynomial function then we have
g ( x ) = f ( x ) − 1 and g ( x 1 ) = f ( x 1 ) − 1
Rewriting equation (1) in terms of g ( x ) we have,
g ( x 1 ) + 1 = g ( x ) g ( x ) + 1
⟹ g ( x 1 ) + 1 = 1 + g ( x ) 1
⟹ g ( x 1 ) = g ( x ) 1
Now g ( x ) is a polynomial and the above condition can be true only when the polynomial has a single variable term(without any coefficient). Because if there are multiple variable terms in g ( x ) having coefficients other than 1 attached to them then the reciprocal of the polynomial can never be equal to the actual polynomial for all values of x in the domain of g ( x ) . Hence the polynomial should be of the form:
g ( x ) = ± x n
⟹ f ( x ) − 1 = ± x n
⟹ f ( x ) = 1 ± x n
Now see Tanishq Varshney's solution below for complete answer.