Simplify Functions-1!

Algebra Level 2

f ( x ) f ( 1 x ) = f ( x ) + f ( 1 x ) \large f(x) \ f\left(\dfrac 1 x\right) = f(x) + f\left(\dfrac 1 x\right)

A polynomial f f satisfies the above equation and f ( 10 ) = 1001. f(10) = 1001. Find the value of f ( 20 ) . f(20).


The answer is 8001.

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2 solutions

Gautam Jha
May 31, 2015

In response to challenge master note and Sandeep Bhardwaj Sir

First of all, rearranging the given condition we can also write:

f ( 1 x ) = f ( x ) f ( x ) 1 \Large f(\frac{1}{x})=\Large \frac{f(x)}{f(x)-1} ..................... (1)

Let g ( x ) = f ( x ) 1 g(x)=f(x)-1 be a polynomial function then we have

g ( x ) = f ( x ) 1 g(x)=f(x)-1 and g ( 1 x ) = f ( 1 x ) 1 g(\frac{1}{x})=f(\frac{1}{x})-1

Rewriting equation (1) in terms of g ( x ) g(x) we have,

g ( 1 x ) + 1 = g ( x ) + 1 g ( x ) \Large g(\frac{1}{x})+1= \Large \frac{g(x)+1}{g(x)}

g ( 1 x ) + 1 = 1 + 1 g ( x ) \implies \Large g(\frac{1}{x})+1=1+ \Large \frac{1}{g(x)}

g ( 1 x ) = 1 g ( x ) \implies \Large g(\frac{1}{x})=\Large \frac{1}{g(x)}

Now g ( x ) g(x) is a polynomial and the above condition can be true only when the polynomial has a single variable term(without any coefficient). Because if there are multiple variable terms in g ( x ) g(x) having coefficients other than 1 attached to them then the reciprocal of the polynomial can never be equal to the actual polynomial for all values of x x in the domain of g ( x ) g(x) . Hence the polynomial should be of the form:

g ( x ) = ± x n g(x)=\pm x^n

f ( x ) 1 = ± x n \implies f(x)-1=\pm x^n

f ( x ) = 1 ± x n \implies f(x)= 1\pm x^n

Now see Tanishq Varshney's solution below for complete answer.

@Gautam Jha nicely done, upvoted!

Nishant Rai - 6 years ago

Very nicely done!

Calvin Lin Staff - 6 years ago

@Gautam Jha thanks for the proof

Alapan Chaudhuri - 4 years, 7 months ago

how do you get equation one

Kano Boom - 2 years ago

thanks for the solution'

Michael Cenreng - 10 months, 1 week ago

@Sandeep Bhardwaj @Tanishq Varshney

Please see this proof above.

Gautam Jha - 6 years ago
Tanishq Varshney
May 30, 2015

Any function satisfying

f ( x ) . f ( 1 x ) = f ( x ) + f ( 1 x ) f(x).f(\frac{1}{x})=f(x)+f(\frac{1}{x}) is f ( x ) = 1 ± x n f(x)=1 \pm x^{n}

given f ( 10 ) = 1001 f(10)=1001

1 + 1 0 n = 1001 1+10^{n}=1001

n = 3 n=3

f ( x ) = 1 + x 3 f(x)=1+x^{3}

f ( 20 ) = 1 + ( 20 ) 3 f(20)=1+(20)^{3}

f ( 20 ) = 8001 f(20)=8001

Moderator note:

Sandeep Bhardwaj brought up a valid point, why does f ( x ) = 1 ± x n f(x) = 1 \pm x^n ?

Can you prove that f ( x ) f(x) satisfying the given functional equation will be of the form 1 ± x n 1 \pm x^n ?

Sandeep Bhardwaj - 6 years ago

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Well sir i dont know how to prove it but i learnt its result

Tanishq Varshney - 6 years ago

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Ok, then try to prove it.

Hint : Coefficient compare. Or playing with the given condition followed by f f .

Sandeep Bhardwaj - 6 years ago

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