Determine the largest positive integer n such that sin n x + cos n x ≥ n 1 holds true for all real numbers x .
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Note that n can't be odd, otherwise at x = π we would have sin n x + cos n x = 0 n + ( − 1 ) n = − 1 < n 1 . Hence we might assume that n is even.
Let f n ( x ) = sin n x + cos n x . Our goal is to find the minimum of f n . Computing the derivative yields f n ( x ) ′ = n sin n − 1 x cos x + n cos n − 1 x ( − sin x ) = n ( sin n − 1 x cos x − cos n − 1 x sin x ) . Clearly the function can only have minimum value where its derivative equals zero, therefore we get the equation
n ( sin n − 1 x cos x − cos n − 1 x sin x ) = 0
sin n − 1 x cos x − cos n − 1 x sin x = 0
sin x cos x ( sin n − 2 x − cos n − 2 x ) = 0
This can only be satisfied when either sin x = 0 or cos x = 0 , which implies x = k 2 π for k ∈ Z , or alternatively
sin n − 2 x = cos n − 2 x
tan n − 2 x = 1 ,
where we assumed that cos x = 0 . This equation has solutions tan x = ± 1 or x = 4 π + k 2 π , since n is even.
Note that in the former case of x = k 2 π one of sin x and cos x is zero, and the other has absolute value of 1 . Therefore sin n x + cos n x = 0 n + ( ± 1 ) n = 1 ≥ n 1 . However, in the latter case of x = 4 π + k 2 π the absolute value of both sin x and cos x equals to 2 1 , hence sin n x + cos n x = ( ± 2 1 ) n + ( ± 2 1 ) n = 2 ⋅ 2 − 2 n = 2 1 − 2 n . It follows that the minimum value of f n is either 1 or 2 1 − 2 n .
In the first case the condition is clearly satisfied. However, in the second case sin n x + cos n x ≥ n 1 only holds when 2 1 − 2 n ≥ n 1 or equivalently 2 n ≥ 2 2 n . Note that this is true whenever n ≤ 8 . To show it doesn't hold for n > 8 we employ induction. The base case n = 9 is clear. Assume that 2 n < 2 2 n for some n > 8 . From the induction hyphothesis and the constraint n > 8 we get
2 2 n + 1 = 2 ⋅ 2 2 n > 2 ⋅ 2 n = 2 n + 2 ( 2 − 1 ) n > 2 n + 2 ( 2 − 1 ) 8 > 2 n + 2 = 2 ( n + 1 ) ,
since 1 2 8 > 8 1 ⇒ 8 2 > 9 ⇒ 2 − 1 > 8 1 ⇒ 1 6 ( 2 − 1 ) > 2 . The induction is therefore complete.
We have obtained that the condition of the problem only holds for even n ≤ 8 . The greatest such n is 8 , hence the solution.
A rigorous solution! Another approaching is using the Power Mean Inequality.Since n must be even,wlog,assume x ∈ [ 0 , 2 π ] .The case x = 0 , 2 π doesn't matter. For x ∈ ( 0 , 2 π ) ,by Power Mean Inequality, ( 2 s i n n x + c o s n x ) n 1 ≥ ( 2 s i n 2 x + c o s 2 x ) 1 / 2 (note that n ≥ 2 ),or equivalently s i n n x + c o s n x ≥ ( 1 / 2 ) 2 n − 1 .The equality is achieved when s i n x = c o s x = 2 / 2 . The following step is exactly same...
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It is clear that for n ≤ 2 the inequality is trivial so suppose that n ≥ 2 . Then, by the power mean inequality:
n 2 sin n x + cos n x ≥ 2 sin 2 x + cos 2 x = 2 1 Re-arranging the important parts of this we get: sin n x + cos n x ≥ 2 ( 2 1 ) 2 n
So if n is an integer such that the inequality in the problem does not hold, it must be that 2 ( 2 1 ) 2 n < n 1 . This inequality holds for n ≥ 9 (check proof below). However, this condition is necessary but not sufficient so let's confirm that n ≥ 9 does not work: Consider x = 4 π which implies sin x = cos x = 2 2 . Then sin n x + cos n x = 2 ( 2 2 ) n = 2 ( 2 1 ) 2 n < n 1 .
Thus, the given inequality holds up to n = 8 .
2 ( 2 1 ) 2 n < n 1 ⟺ 0 . 5 2 n < n 0 . 5 . Let u = 2 n , then 0 . 5 2 n < n 0 . 5 ⟺ ( 2 1 ) u < 4 u 1 ⟺ − u lo g 2 < − lo g 4 u ⟺ u lo g 2 lo g 4 u < 1 ⟺ u 2 + u lo g 2 u < 1 . u 2 is a decreasing function for u > 0 and it is a trivial calculus exercise to prove that u lo g 2 u is decreasing for u > e . Thus overall the expression is decreasing and checking for u = 4 . 5 (which corresponds to n = 9 ) we see that indeed u 2 + u lo g 2 u < 1 and as it is decreasing, it must hold for all u > 4 . 5 too.