What is the value of the following limit?
n → ∞ lim n n 1 × 2 × ⋯ × n
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How does the term ( 2πx) ^1/2x tend to 1 as x approaches infinity ?
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(2\pi x)^{\frac{1}{2x}} = e^{\frac{\ln(2 \pi x)}{2x} . The exponent tends to 0 as x tends to infinity. Hope that helps.
I used Riemann's sum. x f ( x ) = ( x 1 × x 2 × x 3 × . . . × x x ) x 1 l n ( x f ( x ) ) = x 1 [ l n ( x 1 ) + l n ( x 2 ) + l n ( x 3 ) + . . . + ln ( x x ) ] x → ∞ lim l n ( x f ( x ) ) = ∫ 0 1 l n x = 1 x → ∞ lim x f ( x ) = e
why does the integral of lnx from 0 to 1 equal 1 ?
The result of the integral should be -1. I think the first solution is more accurate because in the indetermined form we could use L'Hosptal rule to calculate the limit and it turns out to be 1.
Suppose one looked at the natural log of this limit. One could rewrite the limit as: lim x → ∞ ( l n ( x ! ) − x l n ( x ) ) / x Using L’Hopital’s rule and the fact that the derivative of the natural logarithm of the gamma function gives you the digamma function. lim x → ∞ ( ψ ( x + 1 ) − l n ( x ) − 1 ) / 1 Since ψ ( x + 1 ) = − γ + H x , where H x is the xth Harmonic number and γ is the Euler Mascheroni constant, making the substitution yields: lim x → ∞ ( − γ + H x − l n ( x ) − 1 ) / 1 = l i m x → ∞ ( − γ + γ − 1 ) / 1 = − 1 Exponentiating both sides will give us our answer: e x p ( − 1 ) .
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The function f ( x ) is defined as x x ! .
Now, using Stirling's approximation that n ! ∼ 2 π n ( e n ) n , we rewrite the above function as f ( x ) ∼ x 2 π x ( e x ) x = 2 x 2 π x e x
Then, x f ( x ) ∼ e 2 x 2 π x
As x → ∞ , x f ( x ) = e 1