Can we say that:
if b a = d c = f e , then
b 4 + 2 d 2 f − 3 b f 3 a 3 b + 2 c 2 e − 3 a e 2 f = b d f a c e ?
Given that: a = b = c = d = e = f
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Nope, you still have to ensure that you are not canceling out 0. E.g. if a = b = c = d = e = f = 1 , then the LHS is 0 0 while the RHS is 1 1 .
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I didnot understand why we need to equate all variables to 1.
I have edited the problem thanks.
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L e t b a = d c = f e = k ∴ a = b k , c = d k , e = f k S u b s i t u t i n g , ∴ b 4 + 2 d 2 f − 3 b f 3 a 3 b + 2 c 2 e − 3 a e 2 f = b 4 + 2 d 2 f − 3 b f 3 ( b 3 k 3 ) b + 2 ( d 2 k 2 ) ( f k ) − 3 ( b k ) ( f 2 k 2 ) f = b 4 + 2 d 2 f − 3 b f 3 k 3 ( b 4 + 2 d 2 f − 3 b f 3 ) = k 3 = b a ∗ d c ∗ f e = b d f a c e