Square your limit problem

Calculus Level 4

lim n ( 2 n ) ! n ! n n n \large \lim \limits_{n\to \infty }\sqrt[n]{\dfrac{( 2n) ! }{n! n^{n}} }

If the value of the limit above equals to A × e B A \times e^B for integers A A and B B , find the value of A × B A\times B .


The answer is -4.

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3 solutions

Michael Mendrin
Sep 11, 2015

Use Stirling's Approximation to re-express this as follows

( 2 n ) ! n ! n n n = 2 π 2 n ( 2 n e ) 2 n 2 π n ( n e ) n n n n = ( 2 ) 1 n ( 4 e ) \sqrt [ n ]{ \dfrac { \left( 2n \right) ! }{ n!{ n }^{ n } } } =\sqrt [ n ]{ \dfrac { \sqrt { 2\pi 2n } { \left( \dfrac { 2n }{ e } \right) }^{ 2n } }{ \sqrt { 2\pi n } { \left( \dfrac { n }{ e } \right) }^{ n } n ^{ n } } } ={ \left( \sqrt { 2 } \right) }^{ \frac { 1 }{ n } }\left( \dfrac { 4 }{ e } \right)

As n n\rightarrow \infty , this becomes

( 2 ) 1 n ( 4 e ) = ( 4 e ) = 1.471568764... { \left( \sqrt { 2 } \right) }^{ \frac { 1 }{ n } }\left( \dfrac { 4 }{ e } \right) =\left( \dfrac { 4 }{ e } \right) =1.471568764...

Otto Bretscher
Sep 11, 2015

The logarithm of the given expression a n = . . . n a_n=\sqrt[n]{...} is ln ( a n ) = k = 1 n ln ( 1 + k n ) 1 n \ln(a_n)=\sum_{k=1}^{n}\ln\left(1+\frac{k}{n}\right)\frac{1}{n} , a Riemann sum of ln ( x ) \ln(x) from 1 to 2. Thus lim n ln ( a n ) = 1 2 ln ( x ) d x = 2 ln ( 2 ) 1 \lim_{n\to\infty}\ln(a_n)=\int_{1}^{2}\ln(x)dx=2\ln(2)-1 and lim n a n = e 2 ln ( 2 ) 1 = 4 e \lim_{n\to\infty}a_n=e^{2\ln(2)-1}=\boxed{\frac{4}{e}}

Moderator note:

Nice observation of the Riemann sum interpretation.

that is a very useful solution

Refaat M. Sayed - 5 years, 9 months ago

Stolz Lemma makes this immediate.

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 9 months ago

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How about my solution Sir ? :D

Naren Bhandari - 2 years, 4 months ago
Naren Bhandari
Feb 6, 2019

I'm using approximation for central binomial coefficient ( 2 n ) ! n ! n n = ( 2 n ) ! n ! ( n ! ) 2 n n = 4 n 2 π n 2 π n n n e n = 4 n n n e n \dfrac{(2n)!}{n! n^n} = \dfrac{(2n)!n!}{(n!)^2 n^n} =\dfrac{4^n}{\sqrt {2\pi n}}\cdot \dfrac{ {\sqrt{ 2\pi n }n^n}}{e^n}=\dfrac{4^n \cdot n^n}{e^n} Gives us limit lim n ( ( 2 n ) ! n ! n n ) 1 n = 4 e \lim_{n\to \infty} \left(\dfrac{(2n)!}{n! n^n}\right)^{\frac{1}{n}}= \dfrac{4}{e}

No, that's not correct, the equal sign (highlighted in red) is not correct:

( 2 n ) ! n ! n n = ( 2 n ) ! n ! ( n ! ) 2 n n = 4 n 2 π n 2 π n n n e n = 4 n n n e n \dfrac{(2n)!}{n! n^n} = \dfrac{(2n)!n!}{(n!)^2 n^n} {\color{#D61F06} {=}}\dfrac{4^n}{\sqrt {2\pi n}}\cdot \dfrac{ {\sqrt{ 2\pi n }n^n}}{e^n}=\dfrac{4^n \cdot n^n}{e^n}

Do you know how to fix this? Does changing it to an approximation sign fix it? Why or why not?

Pi Han Goh - 2 years, 4 months ago

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