In the diagram above, A B C D is a square, N C = 2 D N , and ∠ N M B = ∠ M B C .
If M D N is not a degenerate triangle (that is, its area is non-zero), what is tan ∠ A B M ?
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Expanding the algebra mentioned in the comment:
3 ( S − X ) S 3 ( S − X ) S 3 ( S − X ) S 3 ( S − X ) S 3 ( S − X ) S = 1 − tan 2 ( θ ) 2 tan ( θ ) = 1 − ( S X ) 2 2 S X = S 2 S 2 − X 2 2 S X = S ( S 2 − X 2 ) 2 X S 2 = ( S + X ) ( S − X ) 2 X S
(The nontrivial triangle condition means S = X , so we can multiply both sides by ( S − X ) and cancel.)
3 1 6 X 5 X = ( S + X ) 2 X = S + X = S
Substitute back into tan ( θ ) = S X to get
tan ( θ ) = 5 X X = 5 1 = 0 . 2 .
Similar to my approach.
how do we simplify S/3(S-X) ; i don't get that point
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tan{2θ) = [ 2tan(θ)]/[1 - tan^2 (θ)]
S/3(S-X) = [ 2{X/S}]/[1 - {X/S}^2] = 2SX/[S^2 - X^2]
1/3(S-X) = 2X/[(S-X)(S+X)] , S =/= X
1/3 = 2X/(S+X) ---> 6X = S+X ---> 5X = S
tan(θ) = X/S = 1/5 = 0.2
Can someone explain to be how 2tanθ / (1 - tan^2 θ) came to be?
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tan(θ) = sin(θ)/cos(θ) , tan(2θ) = sin(2θ)/cos(2θ)
sin(2θ) = 2sin(θ)cos(θ) , cos(2θ) = cos^2 (θ) - sin^2 (2θ)
tan(2θ) = [2sin(θ)cos(θ)]/[cos^2 (θ) - sin^2 (θ)]
Divide the numerator and denominator by cos^2 (θ)
tan(2θ) =2tan(θ)/[1-tan^2 (θ)]
I am not so clear with this process.. but I hope I will work fine for me...
It seems to me that there is another solution. If MD is zero, the answer is 1.
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MDN is stated to not be a line so this will not happen. I also would not call it satisfying the NC = 2DC restriction.
Brilliant! Nice! (+1)
Since we are only interested in ratios of distance, we can arbitrarily set
B
N
=
1
, so that
N
C
=
2
and the side of the square is
3
.
Defining x = M B will give us M N = 1 + x 2
Drawing a line through N parallel to M D will produce a trapezoid D M N P with ∠ P D M = ∠ D M N and ∠ M N P = ∠ N P D .
This means D P = M N = 1 + x 2 and P C = 3 − 1 + x 2
Triangles A D M and C N P are similar, since all their respective sides are parallel, so
tan ( ∠ A D M ) = 3 3 − x = tan ( ∠ C N P ) = 2 3 − 1 + x 2
This is an equation in x , namely 3 3 − x = 2 3 − 1 + x 2
There are two solutions: x = 5 1 2 and x = 0 .
Inly the first solution provides a non-degenerate triangle MBN, so x = 5 1 2
Therefore tan ( ∠ A D M ) = 3 3 − x = 5 1 = 0 . 2
Does anyone know how what software was used to make the image in the problem statement?
You should have shown how the ∆s are similar
How do you know that they make a trapezium?
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I mean - how do you know that their angles are the same? They could be different. Mn is not neccessarily parallel to DP.
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I drew line through N parallel to MD. The remaining sides of the two triangles are vertical and horizontal.
Without loss of generality let ∣ A B ∣ = 3 and ∣ A M ∣ = x . Then ∣ D N ∣ = 1 and ∣ D M ∣ = 3 − x . Now since ∠ N M B = ∠ M B C = ∠ A M B = tan − 1 ( x 3 ) , we need to find x < 3 such that
∠ A M B + ∠ N M B + ∠ D M N = π ⟹ 2 tan − 1 ( x 3 ) + tan − 1 ( 3 − x 1 ) = π ⟹
2 tan − 1 ( x 3 ) = π − tan − 1 ( 3 − x 1 ) .
Taking the tan of both sides gives us that
1 − x 2 9 2 × x 3 = − 3 − x 1 ⟹ x 2 − 9 6 x = x − 3 1 ⟹ 6 x = x + 3 ⟹ x = 5 3 .
Then tan ( ∠ A B M ) = 3 x = 5 1 = 0 . 2 .
100 20 101.9803903 100 0.2 0.19739556 11.30993247
It was not clear for me the notation of NMB and MBC, I have considered it is about the segment length. Then my answer is correct If the sign before the was supposed to mean an angle, that is not the right representation.
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On this site, and most sites I've been on, ∠ is the correct representation for angle. In LaTeX the text is \angle.
Let's call D N = a ⇒ N C = 2 a
B C = A B = A D = 3 a
M D = x ⇒ A M = 3 a − x
Triangles MDN and CGN are similar and triangle BMG is isosceles, therefore M G = B G ⇒ x 2 + a 2 + 2 x 2 + a 2 = 3 a + 2 x
Solving x results in x 1 = 0 and x 2 = 2 1 5 a
x 1 = 0 is not compatible with the initial assumptions and the only solution is x 2 = 2 1 5 a
Therefore A M = 5 3 a ⇒ tan ∠ A B M = A B A M = 5 1
Oh wow, I didn't thought about extending the line to form an isosceles triangle. This is an underrated approach. Thanks for sharing!
Construction: Produce M N and B C towards right such that they intersect at a point G .
Since triangles M D N and N C G are right angled and angle D N M = angle C N G , they are similar.
Therefore, we have N D C N = D M C G = N M N G
Subsequently, k 2 k = D M C G = N M N G
⟹ C G = 2 D M & N G = 2 N M .
Let the side of the square be a , then immediately we have k = 3 a .
Since angle N M B = angle M B C , we have M G = B G
i.e. M N + N G = B C + C G .
⟹ M N + 2 M N = a + 2 D M ⟹ 3 M N = a + 2 ( a − A M )
⟹ 3 D N 2 + D M 2 = 3 a − 2 A M
⟹ 3 ( 3 a ) 2 + ( a − A M ) 2 = A M ( 3 ( A M a ) − 2 )
⟹ 3 A M ( 3 1 ( A M a ) ) 2 + ( A M a − 1 ) 2 = A M ( 3 ( A M a ) − 2 )
⟹ 3 ( 3 1 ( A M a ) ) 2 + ( A M a − 1 ) 2 = 3 A M a − 2
From triangle A B M , tan θ = A M a , therefore:
⟹ 3 ( 3 1 tan θ ) 2 + ( tan θ − 1 ) 2 = 3 tan θ − 2
⟹ 9 ( 9 1 tan 2 θ + tan 2 θ − 2 tan θ + 1 ) = ( 3 tan θ − 2 ) 2
⟹ tan 2 θ − 6 tan θ + 5 = 0 ⟹ tan θ = 1 or tan θ = 5 .
Note that if tan θ = 1 ⟹ θ = 4 π , then triangle M D N will degenerate. But it wont't degenerate for tan θ = 5 . So the former is neglected and the latter is taken.
Clearly, tan A B M = tan ( 2 π − θ ) = cot θ = tan θ 1 = 5 1
This question is an altered version of the 2 n d question from 2017's South-East Asian Mathematical Olympiad sample paper for Seniors (Code F).
Suppose the side length of the square is 3, and that B is at the origin. Extend B C and M N to their intersection point, which I will call Q , and label M = ( x , 3 ) . Then triangle B Q M is isosceles, and Q = ( 9 − 2 x , 0 ) . B Q ≅ M Q so
9 − 2 x = 9 + ( 9 − 3 x ) 2 ,
which becomes
5 x 2 − 1 8 x + 9 = 0 ,
which has the two solutions x = 3 and x = 5 3 . The non-degeneracy hypothesis causes us to discard x = 3 . The tangent of the desired angle is therefore
3 5 3 = 5 1 .
Coordinate geometry is almost always a guaranteed approach, isn't it?
Let α = ∠ A B M . Then ∠ A M B = ∠ C B M = ∠ B M N = 9 0 ∘ − α ; ∠ D M N = 1 8 0 ∘ − 2 ( 9 0 ∘ − α ) = 2 α . Let the side of the square be z , then A M = z tan α ; M D = z ( 1 − tan α ) ; N D = 3 z . We have tan ∠ D M N = M D N D ∴ tan 2 α = 3 z ( 1 − tan α ) z ∴ 1 − tan 2 α 2 tan α = 3 ( 1 − tan α ) 1 ∴ ( 1 − tan α ) ( 1 + tan α ) 2 tan α = 3 ( 1 − tan α ) 1 ∴ 2 ⋅ 3 tan α = 1 + tan α ∴ 5 tan α = 1 ∴ tan α = 5 1 .
Got it correct on a complete whim. I don't know advanced math but I took the ratio of DN : AM as 1:0.6 AB = 3DN That gave me the ratio tan of angle ABM as 0.6 ÷ 3 = 0.2 Sorry if this answer isn't good enough.
That's a good start. The harder part is figuring out why DN:AM = 1:0.6 is indeed true. Do you know where to begin?
I couldn't resist finding a solution which exploited the isosceles triangle - which isn't there but can soon be constructed!
Extend MN and BC to meet at a new point E.
Notice that △ M E B is isosceles and that the right-angled triangles △ M D N and △ E C N are similar with a ratio of 1 to 2.
Suppose the square has side length three, and let A M = x so that M D = 3 − x and by Pythagoras M N = ( x 2 − 6 x + 1 0 )
The similarity of the two right angles lets us to scale these lengths up to get
C E = 6 − 2 x and N E = 2 ( x 2 − 6 x + 1 0 )
Now, remembering that B C = 3 we can equate the two sides of the isosceles triangle to get
9 − 2 x = 3 ( x 2 − 6 x + 1 0 )
Straight forward manipulation converts this to the quadratic
5 x 2 − 1 8 x + 9 = 0
which has two solutions x = 3 and x = 5 3
The first of these is the degenerate solution which we are to ignore.
Referring to the diagram, and using A B = 3 we see that the required tangent is A B x = 5 1
Let D N = x and M D = y and ∠ M B C = θ
⟹ 3 x − y 3 x = tan θ and y x = tan ( 1 8 0 − 2 θ ) = − tan ( 2 θ ) = tan 2 θ − 1 2 tan θ ⟹
y x = y ( 6 x − y ) 6 x ( 3 x − y ) ⟹ 6 x − y = 1 8 x − 6 y ⟹ y = 5 1 2 x
⟹ tan θ = 5 ⟹ tan ∠ A B M = tan ( 9 0 − θ ) = cot θ = 5 1 = 0 . 2
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