Start once, second half is easier

Let a recurrence relation be defined as follows: a 1 = 1 ; a 2 = 3 ; a n + 2 = ( n + 3 ) a n + 1 ( n + 2 ) a n n N a_1=1;\ a_2=3;\ a_{n+2}=(n+3)a_{n+1}-(n+2)a_{n}\ \forall\ n\in N

Calculate the sum of all values of x x such that a x = x 2 a_{x}=x^2 .


The answer is 4.

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3 solutions

Define t n = a n a n 1 , n 2 t_n = a_n - a_{n-1} , n \geq 2 with , t 2 = 2 , t_2 = 2 . Then,

a n + 2 = ( n + 3 ) a n + 1 ( n + 2 ) a n a_{n+2} = (n+3)a_{n+1} - (n+2)a_n

a n + 2 a n + 1 = ( n + 2 ) ( a n + 1 a n ) \implies a_{n+2} - a_{n+1} = (n+2)(a_{n+1} -a_n)

t n + 2 = ( n + 2 ) t n + 1 \implies t_{n+2} = (n+2)t_{n+1}

Replacing n + 2 n + 2 with n n

t n = ( n ) t n 1 \implies t_{n} = (n)t_{n-1}

Which is the definition of the Factorial Function.Since t 2 = 2 ! t_2 = 2! , we have t n = n ! t_n = n!

Now, i = 2 n t 1 = i = 2 n a 1 a 1 1 = a n a 1 = a n 1 \sum_{i = 2}^n t_1 = \sum_{i = 2}^n a_1 - a_{1-1} = a_n - a_1 = a_n - 1

i = 2 n i ! = a n 1 i = 1 n i ! = a n \sum_{i = 2}^n i!= a_n - 1 \implies \sum_{i = 1}^n i!= a_n

Therefore we have to find sum of n n such that i = 1 n i ! = n 2 \sum_{i = 1}^n i! = n^2

For n 5 n \geq 5 ,

i = 1 n i ! 1 ! + 2 ! + 3 ! + 4 ! + 5 ! + . . . 1 + 2 + 6 + 24 + 0 + . . . 3 ( m o d 10 ) \sum_{i = 1}^n i! \equiv 1! + 2! + 3! + 4! +5! + ... \equiv 1 + 2 + 6 + 24 + 0 + ... \equiv 3 \pmod{10}

But x 2 1 , 4 , 9 , 6 , 5 , 0 ( m o d 10 ) x^2 \equiv 1,4,9,6,5,0 \pmod{10} only. Therefore, i = 1 n i ! \sum_{i = 1}^n i! can not be a square.

Thus we only have to check from 1 1 to 5 5 .We get two possible solutions, 1 1 and 3 3 . Sum of these are 4 \boxed{4}

Nicely explained! :)

Pranjal Jain - 6 years, 3 months ago
Lu Chee Ket
Nov 20, 2015

Straight to the series evaluate-able without solving it:

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
    1   1   TRUE    1
    3   4   FALSE   
1   9   9   TRUE    3
2   33  16  FALSE   
3   153 25  FALSE   
4   873 36  FALSE   
...

The series grows very fast comparatively. Therefore only 1 + 3 = 4.

Answer: 4 \boxed{4}

Wow! Unbelievable.

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 6 months ago
Harshit Joshi
Feb 18, 2015

On placing the values of of n in the equation we get a1 = 1, a2 = 3, a3= 9, a4= 33 which implies the series is always increasing hence we are left with only a3 and a1. Therefore 3 + 1 = 4

Ans. 4

So? How can you say that Since it is increasing, there are no more solutions?

Pranjal Jain - 6 years, 3 months ago

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