Sum of this infinite series

1 1 × 2 + 1 2 × 3 + 1 3 × 4 + 1 4 × 5 + 1 5 × 6 + = ? \frac{1}{1\times 2} + \frac{1}{2\times 3} + \frac{1}{3\times 4} + \frac{1}{4\times 5} + \frac{1}{5\times 6} + \cdots = ?


The answer is 1.

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2 solutions

Chew-Seong Cheong
Aug 21, 2018

S = 1 1 × 2 + 1 2 × 3 + 1 3 × 4 + = 1 1 1 2 + 1 2 1 3 + 1 3 1 4 + = 1 1 1 2 + 1 2 1 3 + 1 3 1 4 + = 1 \begin{aligned} S & = {\color{#3D99F6}\frac 1{1\times 2}} + {\color{#D61F06}\frac 1{2\times 3}} + {\color{#3D99F6} \frac 1{3\times 4}} + \cdots \\ & = {\color{#3D99F6}\frac 11-\frac 12} + {\color{#D61F06}\frac 12-\frac 13} + {\color{#3D99F6} \frac 13 - \frac 14} + \cdots \\ & = \frac 11 - \cancel{\frac 12} + \cancel{\frac 12} - \cancel{\frac 13} + \cancel{\frac 13} - \cancel{\frac 14} + \cdots \\ & = \boxed{1} \end{aligned}

Srinivasa Gopal
Aug 21, 2018

Each ot the terms in the expression can be generalized as Sum to infinite terms of 1/n*(n+1) where n ranges from 1 to infinity.

1/n*n+1 = 1/n - 1/n+1.

So the expression the question can be rewritten as

1 - 1/2 + 1/2 - 1/3 + 1/3 - 1/4 + 1/4 - 1/5......-1/k + 1/k - 1/k+1

= 1 - 1/k + 1

When k tends to infinity this reduces to 1.

So the sum of all these terms in the question is equal to 1.

@Srinivasa Gopal , I notice that you like to set questions. Your questions would be attractive if you use LaTex properly. I have amended this problem for you. You don't need to separate the LaTex code with different \ ( \ ). Just use one. I have used \ [ \ ] above instead. You don't need to end with "infinite terms" or sometimes \infty , \cdots \cdots is sufficient. Three dots are standard, should not be more than that. You can actually see the LaTex code by placing your mouse cursor on top of the formula. Alternatively, you can click the pull-down menu " \cdots More" at the right bottom corner of the answer section and choose Toggle LaTex. Also advisable for you to look at questions set by more experienced Brilliant members for the standards.

Chew-Seong Cheong - 2 years, 9 months ago

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