Sum to infinity

Calculus Level 4

1 + 2 p 2 ! + 3 p 3 ! + 4 p 4 ! + = f ( p + 1 ) e \large 1 + \dfrac{2^p}{2!} + \dfrac{3^p }{3! }+ \dfrac{4^p}{4!} + \cdots = f(p+1) \cdot e

The function f ( p + 1 ) f(p+1) , as defined above, denotes the ( p + 1 ) (p+1) th term of a well known integer sequence. What is this integer sequence?


For more information, check my "New formula decrypted" note.
None of these. Triangular Numbers Bell Numbers Fibonacci numbers Repunit Numbers

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1 solution

Chew-Seong Cheong
Oct 25, 2017

The function f ( p + 1 ) f(p+1) gives the ( p + 1 ) (p+1) th Bell number . It is a form of Dobiński's formula which gives the n n th Bell number B n B_n as follows:

B n = 1 e k = 0 k n k ! B_n = \frac 1e \sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac {k^n}{k!}

yes, but i simplified the formula

Sourasish Karmakar - 3 years, 7 months ago

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I forgot about solving this problem and I tried the problem e game and solve for s n = k = 0 k n k ! \displaystyle s_n = \sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac {k^n}{k!} and prove that s n = k = 0 n 1 ( n 1 k ) s k \displaystyle s_n = \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} {n-1 \choose k}s_k . I thought I found a new series of number. Then, when I google 1, 1, 2, 5, 52, ... and found that they are Bell number and that B n = k = 0 n 1 ( n 1 k ) B k \displaystyle B_n = \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} {n-1 \choose k}B_k . Check out my solution there for the proof.

Chew-Seong Cheong - 3 years, 7 months ago

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