1 + 2 ! 2 p + 3 ! 3 p + 4 ! 4 p + ⋯ = f ( p + 1 ) ⋅ e
The function f ( p + 1 ) , as defined above, denotes the ( p + 1 ) th term of a well known integer sequence. What is this integer sequence?
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yes, but i simplified the formula
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I forgot about solving this problem and I tried the problem e game and solve for s n = k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! k n and prove that s n = k = 0 ∑ n − 1 ( k n − 1 ) s k . I thought I found a new series of number. Then, when I google 1, 1, 2, 5, 52, ... and found that they are Bell number and that B n = k = 0 ∑ n − 1 ( k n − 1 ) B k . Check out my solution there for the proof.
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The function f ( p + 1 ) gives the ( p + 1 ) th Bell number . It is a form of Dobiński's formula which gives the n th Bell number B n as follows:
B n = e 1 k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! k n