Summation of Factorial

Calculus Level 2

n = 1 ( ( n 1 ) ! ) 1 = ? \large\displaystyle\sum _{n=1}^{\infty}{((n-1)!)^{-1}} =\ ?

e e ϕ \phi π \pi \infty

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1 solution

Samrit Pramanik
Apr 29, 2015

We have, e x = x 0 0 ! + x 1 ! + x 2 2 ! + x 3 3 ! + . . . e^x = \frac{x^0}{0!} + \frac{x}{1!} + \frac{x^2}{2!} + \frac{x^3}{3!} + ...

So, putting x = 1 x=1 , we get

e = n = 1 ( ( n 1 ) ! ) 1 e = \large\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}{((n-1)!)^{-1}}

So the required answer is e e

This is trivial if one knows the Maclaurin series of e x e^x . Since the problem asks such a question, a proper solution should show the derivation.

Hint: Use Taylor's Theorem .

Prasun Biswas - 5 years, 11 months ago

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