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Simple standard approach.
What approach is this? @BrilliantMathematics
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Here, I am utilizing the fact that 7 ≡ − 1 ( m o d 8 ) which means that 7 is equivalent to − 1 in addition and multiplication modulo 8 .
According to binomial theorem
7 7 7 − 1 = ( 8 − 1 ) 7 7 − 7 = ∑ r = 0 7 7 ( C 7 7 r ⋅ 8 7 7 − r ( − 1 ) r ) − 7 = ∑ r = 0 7 6 ( C 7 7 r ⋅ 8 7 7 − r ( − 1 ) r ) − 1 − 7 = ∑ r = 0 7 6 ( C 7 7 r ⋅ 8 7 7 − r ( − 1 ) r ) − 8
So ( 7 7 7 − 7 ) m o d 8 = 0
Using Euler's theorem, as 7 and 8 are co-prime,
7 ϕ ( 8 ) = 1 m o d 8
7 4 = 1 m o d 8
7 7 6 = 1 m o d 8
7 7 7 = 7 m o d 8
7 7 7 − 7 = 7 − 7 m o d 8
7 7 7 − 7 = 0 m o d 8
Anyway one can also write :
7 = − 1 m o d 8
7 7 7 = ( − 1 ) 7 7 m o d 8
⇒ 7 7 7 = − 1 m o d 8
7 7 7 − 7 = − 8 m o d 8
7 7 7 − 7 = 0 m o d 8
No need of euler theorom.
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Good solution @Ronak Agarwal
Done the Same
Hey, actually the solution writing guide was for Level 3 and so, we should post solutions based on the level 3. :P
i hav a doubt,
why cant we do like
7^7^11= 7^77,
7^7 = 1(mod 8),
1^11 = 1,
So, 7^77-7 = 1-7 = (-6),
-6 = 8*0-6, hence remainder should be -6, i hav not learnt modulus, understanding my means of self solving, pls tell me where i hav gone wrong.
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dear 7^2 is =1 so in remender probes power to power must be be the multiple of 2(for this case) and 11 is not the multiple of 2 so it would be like (7^2)^10=1 and single 7 is left so it is 1*7 (mod 8)=7 hence 7-7(mod 8)=0
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7 7 7 − 7 ≡ ( − 1 ) 7 7 + 1 ≡ − 1 + 1 ≡ 0 (mod 8)