Tanning salon

Geometry Level 3

tan ( ( 2 16 ) ! π 2 16 + 1 ) + tan ( π 2 16 + 1 ) = ? \tan \left(\dfrac{ (2^{16})!\cdot \pi}{2^{16}+1 }\right)+\tan \left(\dfrac{\pi}{2^{16}+1} \right) = \, ?


The answer is 0.

This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and, finally, (c) loading the non-javascript version of this page . We're sorry about the hassle.

2 solutions

From the identity tan ( x + y ) = tan ( x ) + tan ( y ) 1 tan ( x ) tan ( y ) \tan(x + y) = \dfrac{\tan(x) + \tan(y)}{1 - \tan(x)\tan(y)} we see that

tan ( 2 16 ) ! π 2 16 + 1 + tan π 2 16 + 1 = ( tan ( ( 2 16 ) ! + 1 ) π 2 16 + 1 ) ( 1 tan ( 2 16 ) ! π 2 16 + 1 tan π 2 16 + 1 ) \tan \dfrac{(2^{16})! \pi}{2^{16} + 1} + \tan \dfrac{\pi}{2^{16} + 1} = \left(\tan \dfrac{((2^{16})! + 1)\pi}{2^{16} + 1}\right) \left(1 - \tan \dfrac{(2^{16})! \pi}{2^{16} + 1} \tan \dfrac{\pi}{2^{16} + 1}\right) , (A).

Now note that 2 16 + 1 2^{16} + 1 is a Fermat prime . So by Wilson's Theorem , we have that

( ( 2 16 + 1 ) 1 ) ! 1 ( m o d 2 16 + 1 ) ( 2 16 ) ! + 1 = n ( 2 16 + 1 ) ((2^{16} + 1) - 1)! \equiv -1 \pmod{2^{16} + 1} \Longrightarrow (2^{16})! + 1 = n*(2^{16} + 1) for some integer n n .

Thus tan ( ( 2 16 ) ! + 1 ) π 2 16 + 1 = tan ( n π ) = 0 \tan \dfrac{((2^{16})! + 1)\pi}{2^{16} + 1} = \tan (n*\pi) = 0 , and therefore the given expression equals 0 \boxed{0} as well.

(Note that neither ( 2 16 ) ! 2 16 + 1 \dfrac{(2^{16})!}{2^{16} + 1} nor 1 2 16 + 1 \dfrac{1}{2^{16} + 1} is an odd multiple of 1 2 \dfrac{1}{2} , so the second term in the product (A) is finite.)

Perfect! Exactly as intended. The way I derived this was starting out with sin ( [ ( p 1 ) ! + 1 ] π p ) = 0 \sin \left( \dfrac{[(p-1)!+1]\pi}{p} \right) = 0 , then separating that into two terms with the compound angle formula, but the tangent addition formula is clearer in terms of motivation.

Jake Lai - 5 years, 5 months ago

Log in to reply

Thanks! When I saw the factorial sign I knew Wilson's was involved, but it took me a minute to recall that 2 16 + 1 2^{16} + 1 was a Fermat prime. Nice problem. :)

Brian Charlesworth - 5 years, 5 months ago
Arjen Vreugdenhil
Jan 21, 2016

Since p = 2 16 + 1 p = 2^{16} + 1 is prime (Fermat), we know that ( p 1 ) ! 1 (p-1)! \equiv -1 mod p (Wilson).

Thus we have ( 2 16 ) ! π 2 16 + 1 π 2 16 + 1 mod π . \frac{(2^{16})! \cdot \pi}{2^{16}+1} \equiv \frac{-\pi}{2^{16}+1} \ \ \text{mod}\ \pi. Because the tangent is periodic with period π \pi we have tan ( ( 2 16 ) ! π 2 16 + 1 ) = tan ( π 2 16 + 1 ) , \tan\left(\frac{(2^{16})! \cdot \pi}{2^{16}+1}\right) = \tan\left(\frac{-\pi}{2^{16}+1}\right), and from the oddness of the tangent function, tan ( x ) = tan x \tan (-x) = -\tan x , it follows that = tan ( π 2 16 + 1 ) . \dots = -\tan\left(\frac{\pi}{2^{16}+1}\right). Since this is the additive opposite of the second term, the sum will be zero 0 \boxed{0} .

0 pending reports

×

Problem Loading...

Note Loading...

Set Loading...