tan ( 2 1 6 + 1 ( 2 1 6 ) ! ⋅ π ) + tan ( 2 1 6 + 1 π ) = ?
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Perfect! Exactly as intended. The way I derived this was starting out with sin ( p [ ( p − 1 ) ! + 1 ] π ) = 0 , then separating that into two terms with the compound angle formula, but the tangent addition formula is clearer in terms of motivation.
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Thanks! When I saw the factorial sign I knew Wilson's was involved, but it took me a minute to recall that 2 1 6 + 1 was a Fermat prime. Nice problem. :)
Since p = 2 1 6 + 1 is prime (Fermat), we know that ( p − 1 ) ! ≡ − 1 mod p (Wilson).
Thus we have 2 1 6 + 1 ( 2 1 6 ) ! ⋅ π ≡ 2 1 6 + 1 − π mod π . Because the tangent is periodic with period π we have tan ( 2 1 6 + 1 ( 2 1 6 ) ! ⋅ π ) = tan ( 2 1 6 + 1 − π ) , and from the oddness of the tangent function, tan ( − x ) = − tan x , it follows that ⋯ = − tan ( 2 1 6 + 1 π ) . Since this is the additive opposite of the second term, the sum will be zero 0 .
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From the identity tan ( x + y ) = 1 − tan ( x ) tan ( y ) tan ( x ) + tan ( y ) we see that
tan 2 1 6 + 1 ( 2 1 6 ) ! π + tan 2 1 6 + 1 π = ( tan 2 1 6 + 1 ( ( 2 1 6 ) ! + 1 ) π ) ( 1 − tan 2 1 6 + 1 ( 2 1 6 ) ! π tan 2 1 6 + 1 π ) , (A).
Now note that 2 1 6 + 1 is a Fermat prime . So by Wilson's Theorem , we have that
( ( 2 1 6 + 1 ) − 1 ) ! ≡ − 1 ( m o d 2 1 6 + 1 ) ⟹ ( 2 1 6 ) ! + 1 = n ∗ ( 2 1 6 + 1 ) for some integer n .
Thus tan 2 1 6 + 1 ( ( 2 1 6 ) ! + 1 ) π = tan ( n ∗ π ) = 0 , and therefore the given expression equals 0 as well.
(Note that neither 2 1 6 + 1 ( 2 1 6 ) ! nor 2 1 6 + 1 1 is an odd multiple of 2 1 , so the second term in the product (A) is finite.)