Let f : R → R be an infinitely differentiable function such that f vanishes at uncountably many points of R . Let f ( m ) ( x ) denote the derivative of f ( x ) m times.
Which of the following options are correct?
This problem is a part of Tessellate S.T.E.M.S.
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It does not, because it's not infinitely differentiable.
This is a tentative solution. I'm not sure how rigorous this is.
First, what would the graph of f ( x ) look like?
Well, it vanishes at uncountably many points, so does it cross the x-axis infinitely many times?
Sort of. As an example, s i n ( x ) crosses the x-axis infinitely many times. However, it only does so when x = n π , n ∈ N , so its zeroes are in one-to-one correspondence with N , meaning s i n ( x ) only vanishes a countable number of times. Actually, for any g ( x ) which only crosses the x-axis at disjoint points, g ( x ) only crosses the x-axis a countable number of times.
[note: This part I'm not quite sure how to prove. That's why this solution is tentative]
So, we must be talking about functions f ( x ) which intersect the x-axis over the course of an interval I (every interval contains an uncountable number of x-values).
However, every tangent line to a point in I will have the equation y = 0 ( f ( I ) is a flat line), which means the graph of f ′ ( x ) will also intersect the x-axis over I . Additionally, because f ′ ( I ) is a flat line, f ′ ′ ( I ) = 0 is, too, and this can be applied for any order of derivative, so we have:
x-values at which every order derivative is zero (statement 1 is true)
an uncountable number of these x-values (statement 2 is true, statement 3 is false)
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Does the following function satisfy the given conditions? f(x)=x if x is rational f(x)=0 if x is irrational