Tessellate S.T.E.M.S - Mathematics - College - Set 1 - Problem 3

Calculus Level 3

Let f : R R f : \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} be an infinitely differentiable function such that f f vanishes at uncountably many points of R \mathbb{R} . Let f ( m ) ( x ) f^{(m)}(x) denote the derivative of f ( x ) f(x) m m times.

Which of the following options are correct?

  1. The subset { x R : f ( m ) ( x ) = 0 m N { 0 } } \left \{x \in \mathbb{R} : f^{(m)}(x)=0 \hspace{4pt} \forall \hspace{2pt} m \in \mathbb{N} \cup \{0\} \right \} is non-empty.
  2. The subset { x R : f ( m ) ( x ) = 0 m N { 0 } } \left \{x \in \mathbb{R} : f^{(m)}(x)=0 \hspace{4pt} \forall \hspace{2pt} m \in \mathbb{N} \cup \{0\} \right \} is infinite.
  3. The subset { x R : f ( m ) ( x ) = 0 m N { 0 } } \left \{x \in \mathbb{R} : f^{(m)}(x)=0 \hspace{4pt} \forall \hspace{2pt} m \in \mathbb{N} \cup \{0\} \right \} is infinite but not necessarily uncountable.

This problem is a part of Tessellate S.T.E.M.S.

Only 1 2 and 3 None of the above 1 and 2

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2 solutions

Nilesh Khatri
Jan 10, 2019

Does the following function satisfy the given conditions? f(x)=x if x is rational f(x)=0 if x is irrational

It does not, because it's not infinitely differentiable.

Joe Mansley - 5 months, 2 weeks ago
Max Weinstein
Apr 18, 2018

This is a tentative solution. I'm not sure how rigorous this is.

First, what would the graph of f ( x ) f(x) look like?

Well, it vanishes at uncountably many points, so does it cross the x-axis infinitely many times?

Sort of. As an example, s i n ( x ) sin(x) crosses the x-axis infinitely many times. However, it only does so when x = n π , n N x=n\pi, n\in\mathbb{N} , so its zeroes are in one-to-one correspondence with N \mathbb{N} , meaning s i n ( x ) sin(x) only vanishes a countable number of times. Actually, for any g ( x ) g(x) which only crosses the x-axis at disjoint points, g ( x ) g(x) only crosses the x-axis a countable number of times.

[note: This part I'm not quite sure how to prove. That's why this solution is tentative]

So, we must be talking about functions f ( x ) f(x) which intersect the x-axis over the course of an interval I I (every interval contains an uncountable number of x-values).

However, every tangent line to a point in I I will have the equation y = 0 y=0 ( f ( I ) f(I) is a flat line), which means the graph of f ( x ) f'(x) will also intersect the x-axis over I I . Additionally, because f ( I ) f'(I) is a flat line, f ( I ) = 0 f''(I)=0 is, too, and this can be applied for any order of derivative, so we have:

  • x-values at which every order derivative is zero (statement 1 is true)

  • an uncountable number of these x-values (statement 2 is true, statement 3 is false)

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