a 2 = ⟹ a = b 2 b
Is the above statement true?
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Bonus Question: Is the converse ( a = b ⇒ a 2 = b 2 ) true?
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Yes, the converse is true. As x = y implies x and y are equal ( both in magnitude and sign ), so their squares are equal.
Not true. If you factorize the second equation it will be ( a − b ) ( a + b ) = 0 ⇒ a = ± b
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If A is -2 and B is 2, it doesn't work. (They have to be both positive or both negative of the same absolute value)