That seems like too little information!

Calculus Level 5

Let f : C C f : \mathbb{C} \to \mathbb{C} be holomorphic on C \mathbb{C} .
Also, suppose the following holds: f ( z ) + as z + . \big|f(z)\big| \to +\infty \text{ as } |z| \to +\infty.

Then which of the following necessarily holds?


Details and Assumptions:

  • Image ( f ) \text{Image}(f) denotes the range of f . f.
  • A B = { x A : x B } . A \setminus B = \{x \in A: \, x \notin B\}.
  • If more than one statement is necessarily true, choose the strongest .
None of the others f f is a polynomial f f is surjective f f is injective C Image ( f ) \mathbb{C} \setminus \text{Image}(f) contains at most one point f f is bijective

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2 solutions

Mark Hennings
Feb 11, 2017

A more elementary proof, using lower levels of complex analysis, runs as follows. We can find R > 0 R > 0 such that f ( z ) 1 |f(z)| \ge 1 for all z R |z| \ge R . Thus all zeros of f f lie in the compact set { z : z R } \{z \,:\, |z| \le R\} . Since f f is not constant, it must have at most a finite number of zeros, and so we can write f ( z ) = p ( z ) g ( z ) f(z) \; = \; p(z)g(z) where p ( z ) p(z) is a polynomial and g ( z ) g(z) is an entire function with no zeros. But then g 1 g^{-1} is entire without zeros, and we can find K > 0 K > 0 such that 1 g ( z ) = p ( z ) f ( z ) K z p z R \left|\tfrac{1}{g(z)}\right| \; = \; \left| \tfrac{p(z)}{f(z)}\right| \; \le \; K|z|^{\partial p} \hspace{1cm} |z| \ge R where p \partial p is the degree of p ( z ) p(z) . Considering Taylor's Theorem for the entire function g 1 g^{-1} we know that 1 g ( z ) = m = 0 b m z m , z C \tfrac{1}{g(z)} \; = \; \sum_{m=0}^\infty b_m z^m \;, \hspace{1cm} z \in \mathbb{C} where b m = 1 2 π i z = S d z g ( z ) z m + 1 m 0 , S > 0 b_m \; = \; \frac{1}{2\pi i}\int_{|z|=S} \frac{dz}{g(z)z^{m+1}} \hspace{1cm} m \ge 0\,,\, S > 0 and hence it follows that b m K S p m m 0 , S R \left|b_m\right| \; \le \; KS^{\partial p-m} \hspace{1cm} m \ge 0 \,,\, S \ge R and hence that b m = 0 b_m = 0 for all m > p m > \partial p . Thus g 1 g^{-1} is a polynomial without zeros, and hence is constant. This implies that f f is a polynomial . This implies that f f is surjective, and that the range of f f is cofinite, but does not force f f to be either injective or bijective.

Deeparaj Bhat
Feb 10, 2017

Note that hypothesis is just that f f can be analytically continued to a meromorphic function g g on C {\overline {\mathbb {C} }} (the Riemann Sphere) with \infty being the only pole (note that this extension is unique).

This means that g ( 1 z ) g(\frac{1}{z}) has a pole at zero. This means that g g looks like the following:

g ( z ) = P ( z ) + h ( z ) g(z) = P(z) + h(z)

for some polynomial P P and some h h holomorphic on C {\overline {\mathbb {C}}} such that g ( 0 ) = P ( 0 ) g(0) = P(0)

In particular, g P g - P is a bounded entire function that vanishes at a point.

By Liouville's theorem, g = P g = P on C {\mathbb {C}}

Hence, f = P f = P on C {\mathbb {C}}

P.S.: Note that the converse is trivial. Hence, only polynomials have this property.

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