That's The Very Definition?

Calculus Level 4

True or False?

\quad If f ( x ) f(x) is an odd function, then f ( x ) d x = 0 \displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x) \, dx = 0 .

False True

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1 solution

Noah Hunter
Sep 17, 2016

Provided if the function is continuous everywhere and is odd, the definition is correct.

If the function is not continuous everywhere, say, for example, tan (x), which contains periodic infinite discontinuities every 2π period from +/- π/2, the definition would be false.

Not entirely correct. If f ( x ) = x f(x) = x , then the statement is false as well.

Pi Han Goh - 4 years, 9 months ago

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As it is with f ( x ) = sin ( x ) f(x) = \sin(x) . For the problem statement to be true the function must be integrable, so besides f ( x ) f(x) being odd, it must at least be the case that lim x f ( x ) = 0 \displaystyle\lim_{x \to \infty} f(x) = 0 . It may be possible to have a discontinuity, (say at x = 0 x = 0 ); I'm trying to think of an example .....

Brian Charlesworth - 4 years, 9 months ago

Oh. I see why now. This is also probably due to the divergence of the improper integral as well, right?

Noah Hunter - 4 years, 9 months ago

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No, no. You're missing the point here. Do you know why x d x \displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^\infty x \, dx diverges and why lim z z z x d x = 0 \displaystyle \lim_{z\to\infty} \int_{-z}^z x \, dx = 0 ?

Pi Han Goh - 4 years, 8 months ago

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