Suppose the function is differentiable over all real numbers. If the derivative of is not 0 at any point, does have to be one-to-one?
This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try
refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and,
finally, (c)
loading the
non-javascript version of this page
. We're sorry about the hassle.
As f satisfies the conditions of the Mean-Value Theorem we know that for any interval ( a , b ) there exists at least one point c ∈ ( a , b ) such that
f ′ ( c ) = b − a f ( b ) − f ( a ) .
Now as we are given that f ′ ( c ) = 0 for any c ∈ R we can conclude that for any a , b ∈ R we have that a = b implies that f ( b ) − f ( a ) = 0 ⟹ f ( a ) = f ( b ) , i.e., f is one-to-one.