Given two positive reals a and b , the special mean or means are all λ such that lo g a λ = lo g λ b or lo g b λ = lo g λ a .
Given that at least one special mean of a and b exists, are all special means of a and b between a and b (inclusive)?
Note:
This is similar to the way the arithmetic mean of
a
and
b
is defined as the
λ
such that
b
−
λ
=
λ
−
a
,
and the geometric mean of
a
and
b
as the
λ
such that
λ
b
=
a
λ
.
This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try
refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and,
finally, (c)
loading the
non-javascript version of this page
. We're sorry about the hassle.
An easier argument from
(
ln
λ
)
2
=
ln
a
ln
b
is that
-
ln
a
,
ln
b
must have the same sign, thus
a
,
b
are on the same side of
1
- There are 2 possibilities for
ln
λ
(due to the sign),
- Thus, one of the possibilities for
λ
would not be on the same side of 1 as
a
,
b
, so it cannot be between
a
,
b
.
A further conclusion (from what you have shown) is that if we force a , b , λ > 1 in the definition, then we always have λ in this interval.
.. except that neither a nor b can be equal to 1 , since we have to be able to define lo g a and lo g b .
If lo g a λ = lo g λ b then ln a ln λ = ln λ ln b and solving for λ , λ = e ln b ln a . After having this expression and playing around with it an easy way to construct a counter example arises by asking a simple question: Can really small a , b yield really big λ ? The answer is yes, and I will just share the first counter example I constructed even though it is easy to produce other ones. Let a = e − e 4 2 and b = e − e 4 6 . It is clear that these numbers are really small, both obviously smaller than 1. Then we can compute λ = e − e 4 2 ∗ − e 4 6 = e e 2 = e e and this number is obviously bigger than 1 and therefore it cannot be between a and b .
To show the negation of the question it just suffices a counterexample. Set a=2 and b=16 ad hoc and you get lambda=1/4 that is not between a and b (included).
The situation is rather similar to the definition of the geometric mean in the way proposed. If a and b then − a b b = − a b = a − a b , which proves that − a b is "a geometric mean" of a and b , even though it is less than both of them.
Now replace a by lo g a and b by lo g b .
That is, for a , b > 1 , define lo g λ = − lo g a ⋅ lo g b ; then lo g a λ = lo g a lo g λ = lo g a − lo g a ⋅ lo g b = − lo g a lo g b = − lo g a ⋅ lo g b lo g b = lo g λ lo g b = lo g λ b . Thus λ is "a special mean" of a and b , yet λ < 1 < a , b .
Let us suppose that 0 < a ≤ b . The condition to be a special mean tells us that ( ln λ ) 2 = ln a ln b . Thus we must have ln a ln b ≥ 0 and then ln λ = ± ln a ln b Thus there are two possible special means, and one is the inverse of the other. If both of these special means lie between a and b , then (multiplying them together) 1 must lie between a 2 and b 2 , so that a ≤ 1 ≤ b . If a < 1 < b then ln a ln b < 0 , and so no special mean exists. Thus we deduce that at least one of a , b must be equal to 1 . But this is not possible, since the definition of the special mean requires us to be able to define logarithms to bases a and b , and there is no logarithm to base 1 .
Thus it is never the case that all special means (that exist) lie between a and b .
The way I solved it is by assuming a = b = ( 0 , 1 ) . Therefore, one can show, ( ln λ ) 2 = ( ln a ) 2 ⇒ ln λ = ± ln a ⇒ λ = a , a 1
a is within the interval [ a , b ] (inclusive), but a 1 , a valid special mean, certainly is not.
Problem Loading...
Note Loading...
Set Loading...
First, solve the equation: lo g a λ = lo g λ b ln a ln λ = ln λ ln b ( ln λ ) 2 = ln a ln b ln λ = ± ln a ln b λ = e ± ln a ln b λ = a ± ln a ln b = b ± ln b ln a
There are two possible values for the special mean.
The second equation lo g a λ = lo g λ b will return the same results for λ . This means that a and b are interchangeable. Assume then that a ≤ b .
It can be easily shown that a ≤ a ln a ln b = λ and b ≥ b ln b ln a = λ . Thus, one of the special mean is always between (inclusive) a and b .
However, this is not true for the second possible value for the special mean. In fact, this value is only in between a and b when a = b = 1 . Unfortunately, in this case, the original definition does not hold, as one cannot take the logarithm at base 1 .
Thus, the answer is No .