Given infinite sequences a 1 , a 2 , a 3 , ⋯ and b 1 , b 2 , b 3 , ⋯ of real numbers satisfying
a n + 1 + b n + 1 = 2 a n + b n
a n + 1 b n + 1 = a n b n
for all n ≥ 1 .
Suppose b 2 0 1 6 = 1 and a 1 > 0 .
Find the number of possible values of a 1 .
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Here is a gist of a proof, I think, (some gaps are left for you to fill in):
We require that both sequences be real. So for each n > 0 , a n , b n must be such that there exist reals a n + 1 , b n + 1 such that the two recursive equalities are met. Using that x + y = A , x y = 1 has a real solution iff ∣ A ∣ ≥ 2 , we determine that ( a n + b n ) 4 ≥ 2 8 ( a n b n ) , i.e., ( a 1 + b 1 ) 4 ≥ 2 8 2 4 ( n − 1 ) ( a 1 b 1 ) 2 1 − n for all n > 0 . If a 1 b 1 = 0 , then ( a 1 b 1 ) 2 1 − n → 1 as n → ∞ . But then ( a 1 + b 1 ) 4 ≥ 2 8 2 4 ( n − 1 ) ( a 1 b 1 ) 2 1 − n is a contradiction, since the right side grows to ∞ as n → ∞ . Thus, a 1 b 1 = 0 . a 1 > 0 , so b 1 = 0 . In order for b 2 0 1 6 = 1 , at some m ≤ 2 0 1 6 , we must have b m = 0 . For example, we can take a 1 = 2 2 0 1 5 , b 1 = 0 , a m = 0 , b m = a 1 / ( 2 m − 1 ) for m ≥ 2 . No matter where we choose to switch a m to zero and b m to nonzero, we must have a 1 = 2 2 0 1 5 .