( 1 1 + 2 1 ) − ( 3 1 + 4 1 ) + ( 5 1 + 6 1 ) − ( 7 1 + 8 1 ) + … = ?
Give your answer to 3 decimal places.
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Let the given infinite summation be S . Now consider the Maclaurin series of ln ( 1 − i ) , where i = − 1 is the imaginary unit .
ln ( 1 − i ) i ln ( 1 − i ) = − 1 i + 2 1 + 3 i − 4 1 − 5 i + 6 1 + 7 i − 8 1 + ⋯ = 1 1 + 2 i − 3 1 − 4 i + 5 1 + 6 i − 7 1 − 8 i + ⋯ Multiply both sides by i
⟹ S = ℜ ( i ln ( 1 − i ) ) + ℑ ( i ln ( 1 − i ) ) , where ℜ ( z ) and ℑ ( z ) are real part and imaginary part of complex number z respectively.
i ln ( 1 − i ) = i ln ( 2 ( 2 1 − 2 i ) ) = i ln ( 2 e − 4 π i ) = i ( 2 ln 2 − 4 π i ) = 4 π + 2 ln 2 i By Euler’s formula: e θ i = cos θ + i sin θ
Therefore, S = ℜ ( i ln ( 1 − i ) ) + ℑ ( i ln ( 1 − i ) ) = 4 π + 2 ln 2 ≈ 1 . 1 3 2 .
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Split the series into two parts: the even denominators and the odd denominators.
The even denominators is just the regular alternating harmonic series divided by 2, so this is just \frac{ln2}{2}.
The odd denominators are a little trickier. Start with the series \frac{1}{1+x^2} = 1-x^{2}+x^{4}-x^{6}...
Then take the integral of both sides. Tan inverse of (x) = x-\frac{x^{3}}{3}+\frac{x^{5}}{5}-\frac{x^{7}}{7}....
Plug in x=1 to get: Tan inverse of (1) = 1-\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{5}-\frac{1}{7}....
\frac{\pi}{4} = the series of odd denominators.
So the answer is \frac{\pi}{4} + \frac{ln2}{2}, which is about \boxed{1.132}