1 0 n + 2 0 n OR 1 5 n + 1 5 n
For integers n greater than 1, which of these quantities is larger?
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so good !!!!
How's that...?
Trying n = 2 we see that 1 0 2 + 2 0 2 > 1 5 2 + 1 5 2 .
From the phrasing of the question, we can build the hypothesis that
1 0 n + 2 0 n > 1 5 n + 1 5 n , n ∈ Z ∣ n > 1
and try to prove this by induction.
Assuming that this statement is true for n = k , for n = k + 1 we have:
1 0 k + 1 + 2 0 k + 1 = 1 0 ( 1 0 k ) + 2 0 ( 2 0 k ) = 1 0 ( 1 0 k + 2 0 k ) + 1 0 ( 2 0 k ) 1 5 k + 1 + 1 5 k + 1 = 1 5 ( 1 5 k ) + 1 5 ( 1 5 k ) = 1 5 ( 1 5 k + 1 5 k ) = 1 0 ( 1 5 k + 1 5 k ) + 5 ( 1 5 k + 1 5 k )
We now need to establish which of these is greater. From our assumption, 1 0 ( 1 0 k + 2 0 k ) > 1 0 ( 1 5 k + 1 5 k ) . Looking at the remaining parts of these results, namely comparing 1 0 ( 2 0 k ) and 5 ( 1 5 k + 1 5 k ) , since the latter simplifies to 1 0 ( 1 5 k ) and clearly 1 0 ( 2 0 k ) > 1 0 ( 1 5 k ) , we have that 1 0 k + 1 + 2 0 k + 1 > 1 5 k + 1 + 1 5 k + 1 . So, since if the hypothesis is true for n = k it is also true for n = k + 1 , it is thus proven true for all integers n greater than 1.
I liked your reasoning.
Great proof by induction!!!!
My solution is based on that:
Take 0 ≤ α ≤ 1 and two other real numbers, here 10 and 20 are the numbers we are interested in.
For all real numbers x , 1 0 ( 1 − α ) x + 2 0 α x = 1 0 ( α + 1 ) x
I will note ( α , 1 0 , 2 0 ) ⟺ ( 1 0 ( α + 1 ) ) (multiplying 1 0 0 ( 1 − α ) % of a real number x by 10 and 1 0 0 α % of the same real number x by 20 is equivalent to multiply x by 1 0 ( α + 1 ) ).
We can see that for all integers n ≥ 2 , 1 5 n + 1 + 1 5 n + 1 = 1 5 ( 1 5 n + 1 5 n ) and 1 0 n + 1 + 2 0 n + 1 = 1 0 × 1 0 n + 2 0 × 2 0 n
So, if you consider the sequence ( u n = 1 0 n + 2 0 n ) n ≥ 2 ,
∀ n ≥ 2 , if you consider x = u n , ( 1 0 n + 2 0 n 2 0 n , 1 0 , 2 0 ) ⟺ ( 1 0 ( 1 0 n + 2 0 n 2 0 n + 1 ) = γ n )
And because ∀ n ≥ 2 , 1 0 n + 2 0 n 2 0 n = 2 n 1 + 1 1 ≥ 4 1 + 1 1 = 5 4 , we have: γ n ≥ 1 8 > 1 5
And finally, because 1 0 2 + 2 0 2 = 5 0 0 > 4 5 0 = 1 5 2 + 1 5 2 , we can conclude that:
∀ n ≥ 2 , 1 0 n + 2 0 n > 1 5 n + 1 5 n
Divide both sides by 5^n.
You get 2^n + 4^n and 3^n + 3^n.
Assuming they would be equal for all values of n, then the differences between 2^n and 3^n and 4^n and 3^n will sum to zero.
Only when n = 1 are the two expressions equal. As n increases, 4^n tends towards infinity quicker than 3^n which also tends to infinity quicker than 2^n, as each time you increase n by 1, you multiply by 4,3 & 2 respectively
Therefore (4^n - 3^n) + (2^n - 3^n) > 0 so 2^n + 4^n > 3^n + 3^n, which thereby proves the original.
I guess there was no need to divide by 5^n. I just thought it would help! Sorry for my unsophisticated language. This is just how I "saw" it!
Dividing both the numbers by 5^n, we get 4^n+2^n and 2*3^n. For all n=3 or more, we can write n=a+3. So, we have 4^(a +3)=64×4^a>54×3^a=2×3^3×3^a =2×3^(a+3). Therefore, 4^n>2×3^n. So, obviously, 4^n+2^n>2×3^n. For n=2 also it is true. Hence proved.
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We wrote 1 0 n + 2 0 n = ( 1 5 − 5 ) n + ( 1 5 + 5 ) n . For any natural number n , the value of ( x + y ) n + ( x − y ) n will be 2 i = 0 ∑ ⌈ n / 2 ⌉ ( 2 i n ) x n − 2 i y 2 i ≥ 2 x n
Expand the binomial sigma would gives 2 ( 0 n ) x n + 2 ( 2 n ) x n − 2 y 2 + 2 ( 4 n ) x n − 4 y 4 + ⋯ + 2 ( 2 ⌈ n / 2 ⌉ n ) x n − 2 ⌈ n / 2 ⌉ y 2 ⌈ n / 2 ⌉
Cancelling 2 x n on both sides give you the inequality at minimum of zero. Hence, 1 0 n + 2 0 n ≥ 2 ( 1 5 n )