These Ceilings Can Hold You (In Frustration)

Algebra Level 5

f ( x ) = i = 1 20 j = 1 i x + j i \large f(x)=\sum_{i=1}^{20}\sum_{j=1}^i\left\lceil x+\dfrac{j}{i}\right\rceil

Let a function f : R Z f: \mathbb{R}\mapsto \mathbb{Z} be defined as described above.

Let n n be a randomly chosen integer. The probability that f 1 ( n ) f^{-1}(n) exists (i.e there exists a real r r such that f ( r ) = n f(r)=n ) can be represented as p q \dfrac{p}{q} for positive coprime integers p , q p,q . Find p + q p+q .


The answer is 169.

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1 solution

Daniel Liu
Jun 8, 2014

Let's first deal with the inside sum first: j = 1 i x + j i \sum_{j=1}^i\left\lceil x+\dfrac{j}{i}\right\rceil letting i i be a constant. Let's call that sum g ( x ) g(x) .

Expanding, we see that we want to find g ( x ) = x + 1 i + x + 2 i + + x + i 1 i + x + 1 g(x)=\left\lceil x+\dfrac{1}{i}\right\rceil+\left\lceil x+\dfrac{2}{i}\right\rceil+\cdots +\left\lceil x+\dfrac{i-1}{i}\right\rceil+\left\lceil x+1\right\rceil

This looks a lot like Hermite's Identity. Too bad that it's ceilings, not floors. But what if we could derive a similar formula for ceilings? Let's try it.

First, note that when x ( 0 , 1 i ] x\in \left(0,\dfrac{1}{i}\right] , then g ( x ) = i + 1 g(x)=i+1 . When x ( 1 i , 2 i ] x\in \left(\dfrac{1}{i},\dfrac{2}{i}\right] , then g ( x ) = i + 2 g(x)=i+2 . We see that when x ( k i , k + 1 i ] x\in \left(\dfrac{k}{i},\dfrac{k+1}{i}\right] , then g ( x ) = i + k + 1 g(x)=i+k+1 (the proof is simple). Thus, when i x ( k , k + 1 ] ix\in (k,k+1] , or equivalently when i x = k + 1 \lceil ix\rceil =k+1 then g ( x ) = i + k + 1 g(x)=i+k+1 . Thus, g ( x ) = i x + i g(x)=\lceil ix\rceil +i The proof will be left as an exercise to the reader (it's not that different than proving Hermite's Identity).


Thus, we have reduced the problem to f ( x ) = i = 1 20 ( i x + i ) f(x)=\sum_{i=1}^{20}(\lceil ix\rceil +i)

First off, note that f ( x + 1 ) 21 = f ( x ) f(x+1)-21=f(x) , so we just need to consider the parts where f ( x ) = 1 210 f(x)=1\to 210 (since the pattern repeats for x > 210 x > 210 and x < 0 x < 0 ), or when x ( 0 , 1 ] x\in (0,1] .

Now note that whenever i x ix turns into an integer, f ( x ) f(x) increases by one. Thus, the parts where f ( x ) f(x) changes value is when x = a b x=\dfrac{a}{b} , where a b a\le b and b 20 b\le 20 (these bounds come from x ( 0 , 1 ] x\in (0,1] ). But how can f 1 ( n ) f^{-1}(n) not exist then? The reason is that sometimes, there exists two or more i 1 , i 2 , i k { 1 , 2 , 19 , 20 } i_1,i_2,\ldots i_k\in \{1,2,\ldots 19,20\} such that i m x i_mx is an integer for all m = 1 k m=1\to k . This happens when a b \dfrac{a}{b} is not in its simplest form, or gcd ( a , b ) 1 \gcd (a,b)\ne 1 .

Thus, to count the number of possible values of f ( x ) f(x) , we just need to count the number of times where gcd ( a , b ) = 1 \gcd(a,b)=1 . Letting b = 1 20 b=1\to 20 , we see that this happens ϕ ( 1 ) + ϕ ( 2 ) + + ϕ ( 20 ) \phi(1)+\phi(2)+\cdots +\phi(20) times.

Thus, our probability is i = 1 20 ϕ ( i ) 210 \dfrac{\sum\limits_{i=1}^{20}\phi(i)}{210} . Unfortunately, there is no easy way to calculate the numerator, so we just have to bash. Bashing all the values, we see that our probability is 128 210 = 64 105 \dfrac{128}{210}=\dfrac{64}{105} , and our answer is 64 + 15 = 169 64+15=\boxed{169} .

Ah yes dude thank you! It's so good for me that I was just reading on reversible functions and Hermite's! :D

Finn Hulse - 7 years ago

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