They're both periodic!

Geometry Level 3

f ( x ) = sin ( x ) + sin ( x ) \large f(x)=\sin(x) + \sin(x^{\circ})

True or False?

The above function (with domain over the reals) is periodic .


Clarification: The first sine function is in radians.

True False

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3 solutions

Ivan Koswara
Dec 26, 2016

The function is f ( x ) = sin x + sin π x 180 f(x) = \sin x + \sin \frac{\pi x}{180} . Since both its terms are periodic, the sum is periodic, no?

Hah, if only.

Assume the function is periodic with period 2 p 2p ; that is, f ( x p ) = f ( x + p ) f(x-p) = f(x+p) for all real x x . Then

sin ( x p ) + sin π ( x p ) 180 = sin ( x + p ) + sin π ( x + p ) 180 sin ( x + p ) sin ( x p ) = sin π ( x + p ) 180 sin π ( x p ) 180 2 cos x sin p = 2 cos π x 180 sin π p 180 \begin{aligned} \sin (x-p) + \sin \frac{\pi (x-p)}{180} &= \sin (x+p) + \sin \frac{\pi(x+p)}{180} \\ \sin (x+p) - \sin (x-p) &= \sin \frac{\pi(x+p)}{180} - \sin \frac{\pi (x-p)}{180} \\ 2 \cos x \sin p &= 2 \cos \frac{\pi x}{180} \sin \frac{\pi p}{180} \\ \end{aligned}

This must be true for all real x x . In particular, this is true for x = 0 x = 0 and x = π 2 x = \frac{\pi}{2} . When x = 0 x = 0 , the equation simplifies to sin p = sin π p 180 \sin p = \sin \frac{\pi p}{180} , and when x = π 2 x = \frac{\pi}{2} , the left hand side becomes 0 but cos π x 180 0 \cos \frac{\pi x}{180} \neq 0 , so the equation simplifies to 0 = sin π p 180 0 = \sin \frac{\pi p}{180} . Thus sin p = sin π p 180 = 0 \sin p = \sin \frac{\pi p}{180} = 0 .

We know the roots of sin x = 0 \sin x = 0 are x = 2 k π x = 2k\pi for any integer k k , so we have p = 2 k 1 π p = 2k_1 \pi and π p 180 = 2 k 2 π \frac{\pi p}{180} = 2k_2 \pi for some integers k 1 , k 2 k_1, k_2 . Thus p = 2 π k 1 = 360 k 2 p = 2\pi \cdot k_1 = 360 \cdot k_2 . Since p 0 p \neq 0 (period can't be zero), we have k 1 , k 2 0 k_1, k_2 \neq 0 , so we can compute k 2 k 1 \frac{k_2}{k_1} ; this is 2 π 360 = π 180 \frac{2\pi}{360} = \frac{\pi}{180} . But it is also a ratio of two integers, so it should be rational, contradiction (because π \pi is irrational while 180 is rational, the ratio can't be rational).

This contradiction arises because we assumed p p exists. Since it doesn't, the function therefore has no period and thus is not periodic.

EDIT: "so the equation simplifies to s i n π p 180 = 0 sin\frac{\pi p}{180}=0 ."

Atomsky Jahid - 4 years, 5 months ago

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Yes, my mistake. Thank you.

Ivan Koswara - 4 years, 5 months ago
Sabhrant Sachan
Dec 26, 2016

sin x \sin{x} is periodic with 2 π 2\pi

sin ( π x 180 ) \sin{\left( \pi \dfrac{x}{180} \right) } is periodic with 2 π × 180 π = 360 2\pi \times \dfrac{180}{\pi} = 360

f ( x ) f(x) is periodic by L C M ( 2 π , 360 ) LCM(2\pi,360) . Since the LCM does not exist , the function is not periodic .

Yeah +1, the first approach should be via graphs, ideal solution!

Ashish Menon - 4 years, 5 months ago

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Thank you Ashish Bhaiya,Ivan's solution is much more detailed and better than mine . Proving by contradiction 😎

Sabhrant Sachan - 4 years, 5 months ago

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Lol i thought u were the bhaiya :P

Ashish Menon - 4 years, 5 months ago

Actually, this claim that "if LCM does not exist, then the function is not periodic" is true only if we add the condition of continuous functions. See this discussion for more details.

Calvin Lin Staff - 4 years, 5 months ago

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Sir, you just opened my eyes 😮.

Sabhrant Sachan - 4 years, 5 months ago
Steven Chase
Dec 26, 2016

I believe such a composite signal is only periodic if the quotient of the two signal frequencies is a rational number. This condition will not necessarily be satisfied if the domain for each signal frequency is the set of real numbers.

Actually, this claim is only true if we add the condition of continuous functions. See this discussion for more details.

Calvin Lin Staff - 4 years, 5 months ago

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