⎝ ⎛ 2 + 2 ⎠ ⎞ x + ⎝ ⎛ 2 − 2 ⎠ ⎞ x = 2 x
Find the sum of all real x that satisfy the equation above.
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Your last step isn't quite right. You have only shown that x = 2 exist, but you failed to show that it is the only solution.
Hint: Show that f ( x ) = ( cos 8 π ) x + ( sin 8 π ) x is a decreasing function for all x > 0 and show that it's impossible to have a negative solution.
Furthermore, you don't actually need to show that those radicals are values of a certain trigonometric function. You just need to show that their absolute values are both less than 1 and their squares sum up to 1. Do you understand why?
Additional hint: Do you think that it's necessary to find the exact angles to solve this equation?
( 1 2 3 4 + 5 6 7 8 ) x + ( 1 2 3 4 − 5 6 7 8 ) x = ( 2 ⋅ 1 2 3 4 ) x
Bonus question: Solve the equation above.
Thank you so much for pointing this out! I have updated the solution now. The approach using trigonometrical ratios is not necessary.
Also, any equation of the form f ( x ) = a x + b x = 1 will have x = 2 as the only solution if ∣ a ∣ < 1 , ∣ b ∣ < 1 and a 2 + b 2 = 1 . This is because f ( x ) > 2 ∀ x < 0 , f ( 2 ) = 1 and f ( x ) is a strictly decreasing function ∀ x ≥ 0 .
Therefore, the equation ( 2 × 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 + 5 6 7 8 ) x + ( 2 × 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 − 5 6 7 8 ) x = 1 will also have x = 2 as the only solution.
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Wonderful work, Utsav Banerjee! Small error though: it should be ( 2 × 1 2 3 4 ) 2 in the radicals.
One thing to note that for these kind of equations, we can show that there exist a real y such that cos y = 2 1 2 + 2 and sin y = 2 1 2 − 2 (values are interexchangeable) by proving that cos 2 y + sin 2 y = 1 .
Another bonus question: For positive numbers A , B , would there still be only one solution for the equation below?
( − A + B ) x + ( A − B ) x = ( 2 A ) x
2±✓2 = 2( 1±1/✓2)....We know, cos (pi/4)=1✓2....substituting and using the identity 1+cos 2A=2cos^2 A and 1 - cos 2A=2sin^2 A, we get (2 cos pi/8)^x+(2sin pi/8)^x=2^x....Solving we get 2^x=0 which has no real solution and (cos pi/8)^x+(sin pi/8)^x=1=(cos pi/8)^2+(sin pi/8)^2.....equating cos and sin we get x=2 which is the only real solution...
I tried some other method................................................................................................................
Just in a single moment, I square both sides and I got the answer quickly..See the following:-
Hence the answer.....is 4
You have only shown that x = 2 is a solution but you didn't show that it is the only solution. See Utsav Banerjee's solution for a proper approach.
this solution ccan be re-inforced by applying femat's last theorem. that x can never be greater than 2....
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Fermat's Last Theorem holds only for natural numbers, and here there are radicals.
applied femat's last theorem. Either 1 or 2 can be only possible values. check for 1 and 2. Only solution is 2.
Fermat's Last Theorem only works for positive integers. So here, it does not work.
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cos 4 π = 2 1 ⇒ 2 ( cos 8 π ) 2 = 1 + cos 4 π ⇒ cos 8 π = 4 2 + 2
⇒ sin 8 π = 4 2 − 2
The given equation can be re-written as:
( 4 2 + 2 ) x + ( 4 2 − 2 ) x = 1
⇒ ( cos 8 π ) x + ( sin 8 π ) x = 1
Let f ( x ) = ( cos 8 π ) x + ( sin 8 π ) x . Then, x = 2 is clearly a solution for the above equation f ( x ) = 1 . Let us prove that x = 2 is the only solution.
f ′ ( x ) = ( cos 8 π ) x ln ( cos 8 π ) + ( sin 8 π ) x ln ( sin 8 π )
Since cos 8 π < 1 & sin 8 π < 1 , we have f ′ ( x ) < 0 ∀ x ≥ 0 , that is, f ( x ) is a strictly decreasing function ∀ x ≥ 0 . Hence, f ( x ) will not be equal to 1 for any other value of x ∈ [ 0 , ∞ ) − 2 .
Also, since cos 8 π < 1 & sin 8 π < 1 , for x < 0 we have ( cos 8 π ) x > 1 & ( sin 8 π ) x > 1 . So, f ( x ) > 2 ∀ x < 0 .
Therefore, the only solution for f ( x ) = 1 is x = 2 , and the answer is 2 .
As rightly pointed out by the challenge master, please note that it is not necessary to show that the radicals are values of trigonometric ratios, or to calculate the exact angle. Any equation of the form a x + b x = 1 will have x = 2 as the only solution if a < 1 , b < 1 and a 2 + b 2 = 1 , and it can be proved using the above method!