1 + sin 2 a x = cos x
If the above equation has infinitely many solutions, which of the following is the most general statment that is still true about a ?
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Several issues
Nice approach, but I have a couple of suggestions. First, I believe that
cos ( x ) = 1 ⟹ x = 2 n π , n ∈ Z .
Next, you should probably write equation ( 2 ) as a x = m π , m ∈ Z , since the integral multiple in this equation need not necessarily be the same as the integral multiple n in equation ( 1 ) . As a result we have that
a ∗ 2 n π = m π ⟹ a = 2 n m , m , n ∈ Z , n = 0 , i.e., a must be a rational number.
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I agree with you!
Thanks! :)
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1 + sin 2 a x = cos x
The above equation is true only if sin 2 a x = 0 and cos x = 1 .
cos x = 1 ⇒ x = 2 n π ± 2 π , ( n ∈ Z ) . . ( 1 ) sin 2 a x = 0 ⇒ a x = n π , ( n ∈ Z ) . . ( 2 )
Substituting value of x from eqn(1) in eqn(2) a ( 2 n π ± 2 π ) = n π a = 2 n ± 2 1 n , ( n ∈ Z ) Hence, a is a rational number .