A simple problem

Geometry Level 1

m = 1 20 sin ( m π 2 ) = ? \displaystyle \sum^{20}_{m=1}\sin \left(\frac{m\pi}{2}\right)=\ ? \


The answer is 0.

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6 solutions

Michael Fuller
Nov 28, 2015

m = 1 20 sin ( m π 2 ) \sum _{ m=1 }^{ 20 }{ \sin { \left( \cfrac { m\pi }{ 2 } \right) } }

= sin ( π 2 ) + sin ( π ) + sin ( 3 π 2 ) + + sin ( 10 π ) =\sin { \left( \cfrac { \pi }{ 2 } \right) } +\sin { \left( \pi \right) } +\sin { \left( \cfrac { 3\pi }{ 2 } \right) } +\dots +\sin { \left( 10\pi \right) }

As sin ( x ) = sin ( x + 2 n π ) n Z \sin { \left( x \right) } =\sin { \left( x+2n\pi \right) } ~\forall ~n\in \mathbb{Z} :

= 5 [ sin ( π 2 ) + sin ( π ) + sin ( 3 π 2 ) + sin ( 2 π ) ] =5\left[ \sin { \left( \cfrac { \pi }{ 2 } \right) } +\sin { \left( \pi \right) } +\sin { \left( \cfrac { 3\pi }{ 2 } \right) } +\sin { \left( 2\pi \right) } \right]

= 5 [ 1 + 0 1 + 0 ] =5\left[ 1+0-1+0 \right]

= 0 =\large\color{#20A900}{\boxed{0}}\\

there were too many tries for this question, because i saw that it would go between 1,-1 and 0 so i just typed them all in

Sebastian Bonvino - 3 months, 2 weeks ago
Nate Thönnesen
Nov 25, 2015

Because sin is cyclic, starting over after m=4 (because after 2*pi, sin repeats itself) in this particular equation, you can find the sum from m=1 to 4 and then multiply by 20/4 = 5. At m=1, the equation is sin(pi/2), which is 1. At m=2, the equation equals 0. At 3, it equals -1. Finally at 4, you get 0. The sum of these 4 is 0, so whole sum is 5x0 = 0.

Logical sol

Basharat Bashir - 5 years, 6 months ago
Peter Andrade
Dec 1, 2015

The pattern of the sequence is 1, 0, -1, 0 and repeats every 4 terms, which means every 4 terms =0. For every multiple of 4 terms the sum would be 0 and if there were any remainders you would start the series from there.
Eg 26÷4 would have remainder 2, 0+(1+0) the sum would be 1

Aditya Singh
Nov 30, 2015

I dont understand plzz is there any simple way

Pro, it's either odd or even. If even is zero because sine pi, 2pi, 4pi, ... zero. And sine odd numbers is either 1 or -1. So it's 5-5=0

Mowlid Odowaa - 5 years, 6 months ago

Just visualize the sin-curve: First you put 1 π 2 \frac {1 \cdot \pi}{2} in the sinfunction which is 1 (positive peak of the curve). In the next step you put 2 π 2 \frac {2\pi}{2} in the sinfunction and therefore add 0, because sin π = 0 \sin \pi = 0 (where the curve hits zero after the positive peak). In the third step you add a (-1) because sin 3 π 2 = 1 \sin \frac {3\pi}{2} = -1 (negative peak). In the fourth step you add a 0, because sin 4 π 2 = 0 \sin \frac {4\pi}{2} =0 (where the curve hits zero after the negative peak). At this point you repeat this sequence: peak, zero, -peak, zero,...

Jonas Brinkmann - 5 years, 6 months ago
Adnan Khan
Nov 27, 2015

Here from (1 to 20) there are 10 odd multiple of π/2 which are having values (1,-1,1,-1.......-1) these all gets cancelled.and there are 10 even multiple of π/2 which are having values (0,0,0,0....0) and hence adding all the values we get result as zero.

I solved this way as well. Thank you!

Ken Collins - 5 years, 6 months ago
Todd Lieberman
Nov 26, 2015

The positive cycle will always cancel the negative cycle for a full sinosoidal wave; thus 0

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