This machine is predictable

I have a machine that follows a probability distribution and it only spits out a value of 1 or -1.

If the mean and variance of this probability​ distribution are equal, is it more likely for the machine to spit out a value of 1 or a value of -1?

It is more likely to spit out a value of 1 They are both equally likely It is more likely to spit out a value of -1

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1 solution

Variance, ( σ 2 \sigma^{2} ), is necessarily a non-negative value, and if both the mean, ( μ \mu ), and variance were 0 0 then the only possible output would be 0 0 , which is not the case. Thus the variance, and thus also the mean, are positive, indicating that an output of 1 1 must be more likely than an output of 1 -1 .

More rigorously, given that σ 2 = μ \sigma^{2} = \mu , and noting that E ( X 2 ) = 1 E(X^{2}) = 1 since X 2 = 1 X^{2} = 1 regardless of whether the output is 1 -1 or 1 1 , the formula σ 2 = E ( X 2 ) μ 2 \sigma^{2} = E(X^{2}) - \mu^{2} becomes

μ = 1 μ 2 μ 2 + μ 1 = 0 μ = 1 ± 5 2 \mu = 1 - \mu^{2} \Longrightarrow \mu^{2} + \mu - 1 = 0 \Longrightarrow \mu = \dfrac{-1 \pm \sqrt{5}}{2} .

As noted before, since variance is necessarily non-negative, we can conclude that μ = 5 1 2 = ϕ 1 \mu = \dfrac{\sqrt{5} - 1}{2} = \phi - 1 .

Challenge Master Note: Wonderful interpretation of this problem! For completeness, you should show that there exists probabilities in interval [ 0 , 1 ] [0,1] for these two outputs.

Pi Han Goh - 4 years, 11 months ago

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Let P ( 1 ) = p P(1) = p . Then P ( 1 ) = 1 p P(-1) = 1 - p and so

p ( 1 ) + ( 1 p ) ( 1 ) = μ 2 p = μ + 1 p = μ + 1 2 = 5 + 1 4 0.809 p*(1) + (1 - p)*(-1) = \mu \Longrightarrow 2p = \mu + 1 \Longrightarrow p = \dfrac{\mu + 1}{2} = \dfrac{\sqrt{5} + 1}{4} \approx 0.809 ,

and thus P ( 1 ) = 1 p = 3 5 4 0.191 P(-1) = 1 - p = \dfrac{3 - \sqrt{5}}{4} \approx 0.191 .

Brian Charlesworth - 4 years, 11 months ago

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