Towards Non-Differentiability?

Calculus Level 3

Let f n : R R f_n: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} be a sequence of functions that converge uniformly to f f .

If each of the functions f n f_n is differentiable, is f f differentiable as well?

No, not necessarily Yes, always

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1 solution

Brian Moehring
Apr 3, 2017

The simplest counterexample seems to be f ( x ) = x f(x) = |x| and f n ( x ) = { x x 1 n n 2 x 2 + 1 2 n x < 1 n f_n(x) = \begin{cases} |x| & \quad & |x| \geq \tfrac{1}{n} \\ \tfrac{n}{2}x^2 + \tfrac{1}{2n} & & |x| < \tfrac{1}{n} \end{cases}

Then we can directly check that f n f_n are differentiable and f n f 1 n |f_n - f| \leq \tfrac{1}{n} , so f n f_n converges to f f uniformly. However, f f is not differentiable at x = 0 x=0 , so we may conclude it is not necessary for f f to be differentiable.


The following is quite a bit more technical, so feel free to skip it:

If we know a little about approximations of the identity of the convolution operation ( f g ) ( x ) = f ( x t ) g ( t ) d t (f\ast g)(x) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x-t)g(t)\,dt , we can easily create a large number of nontrivial counterexamples. For instance, if f f is a uniformly continuous function which is not differentiable and ϕ \phi is any sufficiently smooth, non-negative function which is supported on [ 1 , 1 ] [-1,1] with 1 1 ϕ ( x ) d x = 1 \int_{-1}^1 \phi(x)\,dx = 1 , then we may define ϕ n ( x ) = n ϕ ( n x ) \phi_n(x) = n\phi(nx) f n = f ϕ n f_n = f \ast \phi_n Then it is known that f n f_n is as smooth as ϕ \phi is (so that in the extreme case, if ϕ \phi is infinitely differentiable, then every f n f_n will be infinitely differentiable as well), and it may be shown that f n f f_n \to f uniformly (this uses the uniform continuity of f f ).

Therefore, there will be a counterexample to the claim for at least every f f which is uniformly continuous and non-differentiable. In particular, since there are examples of uniformly continuous functions which are nowhere differentiable, it is possible for f n f_n to be differentiable and f n f f_n \to f uniformly even when f f is nowhere differentiable!

Also see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Weierstrass_function

The construction given there is a uniform convergence of differentiable functions to a particular nowhere differentiable function.

Brian Moehring - 4 years, 2 months ago

Yes, this is indeed an interesting observation. I added a graph to your solution.

Agnishom Chattopadhyay - 4 years, 2 months ago

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