Let be a sequence of functions that converge uniformly to .
If each of the functions is differentiable, is differentiable as well?
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The simplest counterexample seems to be f ( x ) = ∣ x ∣ and f n ( x ) = { ∣ x ∣ 2 n x 2 + 2 n 1 ∣ x ∣ ≥ n 1 ∣ x ∣ < n 1
Then we can directly check that f n are differentiable and ∣ f n − f ∣ ≤ n 1 , so f n converges to f uniformly. However, f is not differentiable at x = 0 , so we may conclude it is not necessary for f to be differentiable.
The following is quite a bit more technical, so feel free to skip it:
If we know a little about approximations of the identity of the convolution operation ( f ∗ g ) ( x ) = ∫ − ∞ ∞ f ( x − t ) g ( t ) d t , we can easily create a large number of nontrivial counterexamples. For instance, if f is a uniformly continuous function which is not differentiable and ϕ is any sufficiently smooth, non-negative function which is supported on [ − 1 , 1 ] with ∫ − 1 1 ϕ ( x ) d x = 1 , then we may define ϕ n ( x ) = n ϕ ( n x ) f n = f ∗ ϕ n Then it is known that f n is as smooth as ϕ is (so that in the extreme case, if ϕ is infinitely differentiable, then every f n will be infinitely differentiable as well), and it may be shown that f n → f uniformly (this uses the uniform continuity of f ).
Therefore, there will be a counterexample to the claim for at least every f which is uniformly continuous and non-differentiable. In particular, since there are examples of uniformly continuous functions which are nowhere differentiable, it is possible for f n to be differentiable and f n → f uniformly even when f is nowhere differentiable!