In the above equation, and are integers with and coprime. Find .
Note: is the imaginary unit.
This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try
refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and,
finally, (c)
loading the
non-javascript version of this page
. We're sorry about the hassle.
We will start by finding a nice way to express sin 2 ( ω n π ) . Put a = 2 1 and b = 2 3 . We can write sin ( ω n π ) = 2 i e i ω n π − e − i ω n π = 2 i e − b n π e a i n π − e b n π e − a i n π . Notice that e a i n π = i − n , so sin ( ω n π ) = 2 i e − b n π i − n − e b n π i n . When n is odd, we obtain sin ( ω n π ) = ± 2 i i ( e − b n π + e b n π ) = ± cosh ( b n π ) ⟹ sin 2 ( ω n π ) = cosh 2 ( b n π ) , and when n is even, we obtain sin ( ω n π ) = ± 2 i ( e − b n π − e b n π ) = ± i sinh ( b n π ) ⟹ sin 2 ( ω n π ) = − sinh 2 ( b n π ) . These expressions for sin 2 ( ω n π ) show the series converges to a real value. While the phrasing of the question presupposes this fact, it is not obvious and part of our solution relies on it, so we state this conclusion here for completeness.
To find the exact value of the series in question, we will use a very specialized form of an identity related to Euler's and Ramanujan's formulas for integer values of the Riemann zeta function. The general identity is given as Theorem 4.2 in this paper , but we will concern ourselves only with the case m = − 2 : for any z ∈ C with ℑ ( z ) > 0 , 2 z − 2 n = 1 ∑ ∞ e − 2 n i π V ( z ) − 1 n = 2 n = 1 ∑ ∞ e − 2 n i π z − 1 n − 1 2 1 ( 1 − z − 2 ) − ( 2 i π z ) − 1 , ( 1 ) where V is the elliptical transformation given by V ( z ) = − z ( z + 1 ) . When we differentiate both sides of (1), we obtain − 4 z − 3 n = 1 ∑ ∞ e − 2 n i π V ( z ) − 1 n + 4 i π z − 4 n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( e − 2 n i π V ( z ) − 1 ) 2 n 2 e − 2 n i π V ( z ) = 4 i π n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( e − 2 n i π z − 1 ) 2 n 2 e − 2 n i π z − 6 1 z − 3 + 2 i π 1 z − 2 , which is equivalent to − 4 z − 3 n = 1 ∑ ∞ e − 2 n i π V ( z ) − 1 n − i π z − 4 n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( e − n i π V ( z ) − e n i π V ( z ) ) 2 − 4 n 2 = − i π n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( e − n i π z − e n i π z ) 2 − 4 n 2 − 6 1 z − 3 + 2 i π 1 z − 2 . ( 2 ) Notice the following facts: ω 3 = 1 , V ( ω ) = ω , e − 2 n i π ω = ( − 1 ) n e b n π , ( e − n i π ω − e n i π ω ) 2 − 4 n 2 = sin 2 ( ω n π ) n 2 . Using these facts, we can evaluate (2) at z = ω . After a little rearrangement, we obtain i π ( 1 − ω 2 ) n = 1 ∑ ∞ sin 2 ( ω n π ) n 2 = 4 n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( − 1 ) n e b n π − 1 n + 2 i π 1 ω − 6 1 . Consider the imaginary parts of each side of this equation, keeping in mind that we showed the series on the left to be real. On the left, the imaginary part is i π n = 1 ∑ ∞ sin 2 ( ω n π ) n 2 ℜ ( 1 − ω 2 ) = 2 3 i π n = 1 ∑ ∞ sin 2 ( ω n π ) n 2 , and on the right, the imaginary part is 2 i π 1 ℜ ( ω ) = 4 π i . Equating the imaginary parts shows us the value of the series in question: n = 1 ∑ ∞ sin 2 ( ω π n ) n 2 = 4 π i ⋅ 3 i π 2 = 6 π 2 1 . Therefore, the desired value is 1 + 6 − 2 = 5 .