If sin x + cos x = y + y 1 where x ∈ [ 0 , π ] ,then
This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try
refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and,
finally, (c)
loading the
non-javascript version of this page
. We're sorry about the hassle.
Why you took the maximum value? The value could have been between Max and min.
Log in to reply
Sachin, sorry, I didn't explain it clearly. See the edited solution above.
Log in to reply
Sorry but my doubt remains the same that why did we considered the Max. value of expression to find the answer. There are infinitly many positive values of the expression,why not them?
You said : "sin x and cos x are positive in the given interval of x", but cos x may be negative
Log in to reply
You are right. I am going to change the solution. Thanks.
Here I will use a calculus approach to find the maximum of the given expression.
Let f ( x ) = sin( x ) + cos( x ). Then: f ′ ( x ) = c o s x − s i n x = 0 ⇒ c o s x = s i n x = 2 1 Differentiating again to fond the nature of the stationary point: f ′ ′ ( x ) = − s i n x − c o s x = − 2 < 0 ∴ s i n x + c o s x ≤ 2 Equality occurs when x = 4 π , y = 1
Note that ( sin x + cos x ) 2 = 1 + sin 2 x , so we have 1 + sin 2 x = y + y 1 . By AM-GM, y + y 1 ≥ 2 , and obviously 1 + sin 2 x ≤ 2 . Therefore, they must both be 2, which happens at x = 4 π , y = 1
Here , i will use the value of x = π/4, y = 1 and this x and y value satisfied equation sin〖θ+ cos〖θ= √(y+ 1/y〗 〗)
Problem Loading...
Note Loading...
Set Loading...
We note that the RHS is > 0 and let us assume that a solution exists for sin x and cos x are positive. Cauchy-Schwartz inequality implies:
( sin x + cos x ) 2 ≤ ( 1 2 + 1 2 ) ( sin 2 x + cos 2 x ) = 2
⇒ LHS = sin x + cos x ≤ 2 and we note that RHS = y + y 1 ≥ 2 .
This implies that sin x + cos x = y + y 1 = 2 and equality happens when sin x = cos x = 2 1 ⇒ x = 4 π and y = y 1 = 1 .