Compute the definite integral: ∫ 0 2 π e cos θ cos ( sin θ ) d θ .
Hint : Consider the function f ( t ) = ∫ 0 2 π e t cos θ cos ( t sin θ ) d θ
and use differentiation under the integral sign .
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Wait... do you mean
⋯ = i 1 ∫ ∣ z ∣ = 1 z e z d z = i 1 ⋅ 2 π R e s z = 0 z e z = 2 π ⋅ i 1 ?
Where did the i 1 go?
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The contour integral is 2 π i times the sum of residues, not just 2 π times the sum...
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Oh goddamn it. Thanks. I need to relearn complex analysis again
Why nobody upvoted this solution? I'm so sad...
The other integral with sin( sin) is easy, as the function is odd with respect to pi.
how do you com up with the second line?
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Similarly, the nth derivitive will be fn(t)= exp(tcos(theta)(cos(tsin(theta)+ntheta))fn(0)=0 for all n cos(ntheta) integrated from 0 to 2pi is 0
f(0)=2*pi
Since all the derivitive terms are 0 the taylor expansion of f(t) shows f is a constant function ;
Therefore f(t)=2*pi for all values of t
hence, f(1)=2*pi
in(exp(cos(x))*cos(sin(x)),x=0 to 2pi)
ans13 = 6.28318530717958 ± 1.4e-13
ans13/pi
ans14 = 2.00000000000000
=> Solution is 2 π => Fast and good! ;-)
One may also find the integral by Cauchy integral formula.
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Considering the function f , we see that t f ′ ( t ) = = = t ∫ 0 2 π e t cos θ [ cos θ cos ( t sin θ ) − sin θ sin ( t sin θ ) ] d θ ∫ 0 2 π ∂ θ ∂ [ e t cos θ sin ( t sin θ ) ] d θ [ e t cos θ sin ( t sin θ ) ] 0 2 π = 0 Since f ( 0 ) = 2 π , the desired integral is f ( 1 ) = 2 π .
Alternatively, complex analysis, using the substitution z = e i θ , tells us that ∫ 0 2 π e cos θ e i sin θ d θ = i 1 ∫ ∣ z ∣ = 1 z e z d z = 2 π R e s z = 0 z e z = 2 π and we obtain the integral of the question by taking real parts. This approach also tells us that ∫ 0 2 π e cos θ sin ( sin θ ) d θ = 0 , considering imaginary parts.